Exchange1. If you are approaching your performance targets on a shared mail system, then will you need to upgrade your network for Exchange Server? A. Not initially if your server has the required hardware for Exchange server B. Yes, RPC and server activity increases with Exchange C. Yes, client and server together increases network traffic
2. How should you plan for use of public folders? (Choose all that apply) A. Plan on decreased network traffic because folders are central B. Plan on an increase of traffic because users will use them more often C. Plan for increased RPC traffic
3. How many sites can you create within a domain and how many domains within a site? A. Two, Four B. Ten, Six C. Fifteen, unlimited D. Unlimited, unlimited E. Unlimited, Ten
4. Which are true about the Exchange Server and NT Domain relationship? (Choose all that apply) A. Sites may consist of many NT Domains. B. Domains may consist of many sites. C. Exchange site cannot map directly to a domain.
5. Although it could easily be higher, what is a minimum bandwidth guideline for Exchange Servers to be installed into the same site? A. 56K B. 64K C. T-1 D. 10MB
6. Your usage cost for your link to other servers is high. How would you reduce this cost? (Choose all that apply) A. Control amount of traffic flowing to that link B. Steer traffic to off-peak hours C. Increase number of sites over high bandwidth D. Add more connectors E. Add an extra NT server
7. What is the maximum character length of an Organization? A. 64 B. 16 C. 32 D. 8 E. 128
8. What is the maximum length of a Site Name? A. 64 B. 32 C. 16 D. 8 E. 128
9. What is the maximum character length of a Server name? A. 8 B. 12 C. 15 D. 16 E. 32
10. What is the maximum character length of an e-mail display name? A. 64 B. 256 C. 32 D. 32
11. What are restrictions for Exchange server names? (Choose all that apply) A. Must be 16 characters in length B. Must be NT Server computer name C. Cannot be changed unless reinstall D. Can be up to 20 characters in length E. Must be unique to the network.
12. Which are true of an alias? (Choose all that apply) A. It is the POP3 mailbox ID. B. Can be up to 64 characters in length. C. Is automatically created from User Manager. D. Must be mapped to server name. E. It must be unique.
13. You have just changed an aliases on one of your mailboxes. What else must you do to complete the process? A. Add a new mailbox for the new aliases B. Rename the mailbox C. Delete the old mailbox D. Nothing else
14. Gateways will use ______ names to generate X.400 and X.500 foreign e-mail addresses. (Choose all that apply) A. Alias B. Mailbox C. Folder D. Site E. Organization
15. Which of the following is/are true for SMTP addresses? A. Most restrictive in terms of the number of characters B. Most restrictive in terms of allowable characters C. Make no distinction between upper and lower case letters
16. Which of the following are the most restrictive gateways in terms of number of characters per field (eight)? (Choose all that apply) A. SMTP B. SNMP C. SNADS D. PROFS
17. What tools does Exchange Server come with to help plan and optimize your servers? (Choose all that apply) A. Exchange Load Simulator B. Exchange Optimizer C. Predefined Performance Monitors D. Exchange Administrator Program E. System Attendant
18. When installing users, always do which of the following? (Choose all that apply) A. Have one distribution share B. Consolidate mailboxes C. Consolidate mission critical folders and gateways on servers with hot swappable drives D. Spread members of corporate divisions across multiple servers.
19. You have a list of users that you want to periodically send newsletters and publications. What would be the most effective way to do this? (Your choice will need to take into account network traffic.) A. Public Folder B. Distribution Lists C. Mailbox D. Shared directory E. Personal folder
20. Which of the following will analyze existing configurations and make recommendations for moving databases on multiple drives? A. Load generator B. Exchange Optimizer C. Admin.exe D. Performance Monitor E. System Attendant
21. What tool will help a design team project future performance? A. Load Simulator B. Exchange Server Administrator Program C. Exchange Optimizer D. Performance Monitor E. System Attendant
22. Which of the following protocols support the use of Remote Procedure Calls? (Choose all that apply) A. NetBEUI B. IPX/SPX C. TPO D. TCP/IP E. DLC
23. You have three sites in your organization. You need to control when and who uses the links between them. Which connector would you use? A. X.400 Connector B. Site Connector C. Internet Mail Service
24. When configuring the site connector's property page, what is the only required field as long as you are using the same service account? A. Target Site B. Messaging Bridgehead in the local site C. Address Space D. Target Servers
25. Message traffic costs range from? A. 0 to 10 B. 0 to 25 C. 0 to 100 D. 1 to 100 E. 0 to 500
26. A cost of ______ will be used before a cost of 10. A. 100 B. 500 C. 1000 D. 0
27. What tool would you use to find the local server's IP configuration? A. Ping B. Ipconfig C. System Attendant D. WINIPCFG E. User Manager for Domains
28. What core component does the directory replication use between sites? A. System Attendant B. Directory Service C. Information Store D. MTA
29. Intra-site replication works on a ______ basis. A. Push B. Polling C. Pull D. Constant
30. Inter-site replication works on a ______ basis. A. Pull B. Push C. Constant D. Intermediate
31. You try to alter the permissions of an account at a certain site unsuccessfully. What could be a cause? (Choose all that apply) A. There are no accounts with modify permission privileges on the site. B. These inherited permissions can't be modified. C. RPC service is down.
32. You notice that all users have the same permissions after you have created a large group of users. What could be the caus? A. All sites have same permissions. B. Users are in the same workgroup. C. A users' active account was used as a template instead of a new user account. D. All are in the same domain.
33. You modify a template to change multiple users. After that, you notice that there was no change. How can you modify multiple mailboxes once they have been created? A. Use the NT Server or Novell migration utility. B. Use the Directory Import command. C. Create a text file and import into the mailboxes.
34. You set an MTA message size limit. You notice that there is a problem with size limits not reflecting your changes. What could be the cause? A. Users can override size limits for a short time. B. Size limits are overlapping in other connectors and gateways.
35. You get a message from Sally, but Sally is on vacation. How is this possible when she doesn't have remote access? A. Sally delegated "Send on behalf of" access to another user. B. Sally delegated "Send as" access to another user. C. Sally is a public folder. D. Sally is using "Call Back" Security in RAS where the NT Server is calling her.
36. You are going to be away from work for an unspecified time. You want your secretary to manage your mailbox but not make decisions. She will forward replies to incoming messages and keep them up-to-date on your expected return date. What kind of delegated access should you permit? A. Send on Behalf Of B. Send As C. Read
37. You are leaving the country for 2 months. Your vice president is assuming your duties and will have to make final decisions without you. What type of delegate access should you permit? A. Send on Behalf of B. Send as C. Read
38. John is going out of town and won't have access to his mail but wants to be notified of urgent matters. What type of access should he provide for a co-worker? A. Read Only B. Write C. Change D. Send As
39. The sales group has complained that the marketing group has been changing information in their public folder. What can you do for marketing since they require knowledge of what is in the sales public folder? (Choose all that apply) A. Grant Sales Read/Write permissions B. Grant Marketing Read Only permissions C. Grant Sales Read Only permissions
40. You are designing your Exchange Organization. You've decided on a minimum 12-character naming scheme for mailboxes. Name two systems that will have problems with this. A. SMTP B. SNADS C. PROFS D. X.400 E. cc:Mail
41. You are expecting mail to be sent to a public folder from a user. The user states they cannot see the public folder in the Global address list. What is the cause? A. The user does not have compose access to the folder. B. Folders by default are not visible in the GAL (Global Address List). C. The user is in the wrong domain. D. The client is not connected to the Public Folder Server.
42. You notice that processor utilization is intensive. What upgrade would you recommend? A. Add a second processor. B. Add more RAM. C. Add more hard drive space. D. Upgrade the server to a faster SCSI hard drive system.
43. You have three geographically separated sites with Internet access. They are currently connected with Site Connectors. What site connector would be a good backup connector in this case? A. X.400 B. SMTP C. Internet Mail Service D. Microsoft Mail Connector E. Dynamic RAS Connector
44. Which files can Microsoft Exchange Server be restored from? (Choose all that apply) A. EDB.CHK B. TEMP.EDB C. PRIV.EDB D. PUB.EDB E. DIR.EDB
45. How can a corrupted .ost file be fixed? A. Run SCANPST.EXE against it B. Rename the .ost file to a .pst file, then run SCANPST.EXE against it C. Copy the file to the server, and then run online maintenance against it overnight
46. The wide area network has known reliability issues. How can the overall data transmission rate be increased? A. Increase the MTA checkpoint size B. Decrease the MTA checkpoint size C. There is no way known to increase the overall data transmission rate over the defaults
47. You just purchased Microsoft Exchange Server 5.5 for your company. You were previously using Microsoft Mail 3.x. Which type of system is Exchange in comparison to MS Mail? A. Client-Server Mail System B. Shared File system C. LAN-Based Electronic Mail System D. Mainframe based Electronic Mail System
48. The implementation of ______ in a client-server mail system significantly reduces the amount of network traffic in most cases. A. DHCP B. Mail Transfer Agents C. Remote Procedure Calls D. Message Compression
49. What client-server message-based function of Exchange Server is served by allowing users to post information on a bulletin board, track customer accounts, and access product information from a reference library? A. Scheduling B. Messaging C. Document sharing D. Forms E. Application Design
50. What client-server based function of Exchange Server is provided by managing personal time, organizing tasks, and coordinating with group meetings? A. Messaging Services B. Group information sharing C. Scheduling D. Forms E. Application design
51. What client-server function of Exchange Server includes message transfer, delivery, routing, and directory services? A. Scheduling B. Messaging process C. Group information sharing D. Forms E. Application design
52. What function of Exchange Server allows designers to develop applications that automate tasks and processes? A. Forms B. Messaging services C. Group information sharing D. Application design E. Scheduling
53. Which are components of Exchange Server? (Choose all that apply) A. Shared database B. Active Client C. Passive Client D. Active Server E. Passive Server
54. Exchange Server Enterprise edition comes with the following: (Choose all that apply) A. cc:Mail Connector B. X.400 C. Dynamic RAS Connector D. Internet Mail Service E. no connectors
55. Which are security mechanisms available with an Exchange Server system running on an NT Server network? (Choose all that apply) A. Authentication B. Access control C. Data encryption D. Digital signatures E. Secure screen lock
56. Which Exchange security mechanism provides secure logon? A. Authentication B. Access control C. Auditing D. Data encryption E. Digital signatures
57. Which Exchange Server security mechanism allows users to verify the source of information they receive or send? A. Authentication B. Auditing C. Access control D. Digital Signatures E. Data encryption
58. You recently read an article on Exchange and the benefits to your company with organizing, user access, sharing data. After rushing out and purchasing it you have a problem, because no one can get to their e-mail. Outlook client is called the universal inbox, so why can't the employees receive or send anything out? (Choose all that apply) A. Check to see if TCP/IP is configured properly, it's a good possibility that it's configured improperly. B. You have to make sure the Exchange Server is not attached to a firewall. Exchange doesn't support this type of connectivity. C. It is possible that the client is not configured properly. D. Exchange does not work with Lotus cc:Mail which you have as the mail system for your company.
59. What are the two types of folders used by Exchange Server clients? A. Personal and Public B. Private and Public C. Personal and External D. External and Private E. Shared and Personal
60. Public folders can be securely shared between ______. (Choose all that apply) A. small numbers of users B. Every Exchange User in the Organization C. various groups of users D. Groupwise only users E. Eudora only users
61. When routing mail to a personal folder, it is still funneled through a user's mailbox on the Exchange Server computer. A. True B. False
62. What are two fundamental ways a user can exchange information? A. Shared database B. Sending Information C. Sharing Information
63. What are some ways to organize information using the Exchange client? (Choose all that apply) A. Rules B. Views C. Finder
64. What allows users to organize and view information in different ways? A. Rules B. Views C. Finder
65. What would be used to search for a meeting request after a specific date? A. Rules B. Views C. Finder
66. What makes it difficult to implement security in a shared file mail system? A. Both a windows and domain logon by the client B. Each shared file mail system client has read/write permission to every other client's database files. C. Passive servers cannot restrict access to mail files. D. Passive servers can only implement share level security. E. Each shared file mail system client has read permission to every other client's database files.
67. Which of the following are core components of Exchange Server? (Choose all that apply) A. Internet Mail Service B. Directory Service C. Directory Synchronization Service D. Message Transfer Agent E. System Attendant
68. Which of the following are optional components and are configured or installed as needed? (Choose all that apply) A. Internet Mail Service B. Directory Service C. Directory Synchronization Service D. Message Transfer Agent E. System Attendant
69. Which of the following are used to provide connectivity to other Exchange Server sites and foreign mail systems? A. Exchange Server Core components B. Exchange Server Optional components
70. The ______ stores all information available about an organization's resources and users including mailboxes, public folders, distribution lists, etc. A. Directory B. Information Store C. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process D. Global Address List E. Gateway Address Resolution Table (GWART)
71. The MTA and the Information Store use the ______ to determine the location of a recipient. A. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process B. Directory C. Global Address List D. Gateway Address Resolution Table (GWART) E. Information Store
72. Which is a Windows NT process that is responsible for maintaining and providing directory information to requesting parties? A. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process B. Directory Service C. Information Store D. Global Address List E. Gateway Address Resolution Table (GWART)
73. What Exchange Server service is used whenever a message needs to be sent to another Exchange Server, to a MS Mail postoffice, or to a foreign X.400 system? A. The Site Connector B. X.400 Connector C. MS Mail Connector D. Message Transfer Agent E. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process
74. The MTA is involved in intra-server message delivery. A. True B. False
75. Exchange Server uses MTA to transfer and route from one Exchange Server to another. A. True B. False
76. The Information Store (IS) contains which of the following information? (Choose all that apply) A. E-mail B. Server protocols C. Collaborative applications D. Mail connectors E. Address list
77. Which of the following is not contained in the Information Store? (Choose all that apply) A. Electronic mail messages B. Documents C. System files D. Facsimiles E. Log files
78. What is the limit on each Information Store database? A. 16K B. 16MB C. 16GB D. 8GB E. Unlimited
79. Which Information Store stores messages from one individual to selected group of users? A. Private Information Store B. Public Information Store
80. Why would you replicate folders within a site and then to additional sites? (Choose all that apply) A. To reduce network traffic B. Backup data C. Balance the load on the servers D. Provide access to script files
81. What core Exchange Server component reclaims space used by deleted directory objects? A. Directory Service B. Information Store C. Directory Synchronization Service D. System Attendant
82. Which of the following must be running at all times and stops all other components when halted? A. Directory Service B. System Attendant C. Directory Synchronization Service D. Message Transfer Agent (MTA) E. The Information Store
83. The System Attendant generates which of the following: (Choose all that apply) A. Foreign e-mail addresses for new recipients B. Transfers mail between Exchange Servers C. Builds routing tables for a site D. Shuts down all services when halted E. Contains addresses and mailboxes and configuration information about sites
84. The Microsoft Mail Connector provides connectivity to: (Choose all that apply) A. MS Mail for PC Networks B. AT&T Mail C. SNADS D. MS Mail for Appletalk Networks E. All other LAN based E-Mail systems not covered by the X.400 connector
85. An Exchange Server mimics an MS Mail postoffice in order to send mail to Mail 3.x postoffices and AppleTalk networks. This is done using the: A. MTA B. Mail Connector Post Office C. Upstream Postoffice D. Requestor Postoffice E. AppleTalk / MS Mail Postoffice
86. Which bindery attachments does the Internet Mail Service support: (Choose all that apply) A. MIME B. SNMP C. UUENCODE D. SMTP E. FTP
87. Microsoft Exchange Server uses ______ to communicate between with foreign mail systems. A. MS Exchange Server gateways B. Message Transfer Agent (MTA) C. Third-party vendors make the connectors D. Connectors that ship with Exchange Server
88. How are schedule free and busy times handled by the Exchange Server? A. Schedule Distribution is run on a separate PC B. Schedule Distribution is run on Exchange Server C. There is one Free/Busy Public folder in each site that services can access
89. Messages being sent to an Internet address or to a non-X.400 system do not go through the MTA. They flow from the Information Store to the Internet Mail Service or the appropriate gateway. The only time the MTA is involved is if: A. The MTA is on a different server B. The X.400 is on a different server C. The Internet Mail Service is on a different server
90. The X.400 Connector is integrated into the ______. A. MS Mail Connector B. Internet Mail Service C. X.400 Service D. MS Exchange MTA E. Information Store
91. What are the system requirements to install MS Outlook on Windows NT? (Choose all that apply) A. 16MB RAM B. 24MB RAM C. RPC over TCP/IP D. 12 MB free disk space E. AppleTalk
92. Exchange Server must be installed in an existing mail system i.e., cc:Mail or MS Mail. A. True B. False
93. An owner of a resource such as file or a service is allowed to determine who can access it. This is done through ______ security. A. Share level B. User Level C. Authentication
94. Exchange Server encrypts data in what way? A. When stored B. When on the wire C. When stored on disk and when transmitted on wire D. Until message is read E. After the message is deleted
95. Mail delivered to a personal folder is still funneled through a user's mailbox but is stored where? A. Exchange Server Private Information Store B. in the .OST file C. User.mmf D. Config.pol E. in the .PST file
96. What folder facilitates the exchange of group information? A. Site folder B. Public folder C. Organizational folders D. Personal folder E. Server folder
97. Which encryption mechanism provides source verification to allow users to know the source of info received? A. Authentication B. Data Encryption C. Digital Signature D. Auditing E. Logging
98. The Exchange Client is a universal viewer of what type information? (Choose all that apply) A. Sent items B. Email, word-processing, graphs C. Graphs, voice mail D. NT Registry E. Faxes and presentation graphics
99. What two folders are available in Exchange Server? A. Directory B. Event C. Public D. Shared E. Private
100. What are the two fundamental ways in which users exchange information? A. Reading B. Sending C. Sharing D. Receiving
101. A user can create a public folder to allow which of the following: (Choose all that apply) A. collaborative applications B. discussion groups C. Access to private mailboxes D. Send mail to an individual user E. Corporate information available to all employees
102. What tool does an individual use to assign another user access to view his messages or folders? A. Outlook Client B. Administrator Program C. NT User Manager for Domains D. Server Manager
103. A user can set up a ______ to affect incoming mail and take a variety of actions. A. View B. Rule C. Sort D. Policy file E. .mmf file
104. Users can set up a ______ to organize and view info in different ways. A. View B. Rule C. Query D. Finder
105. MS Exchange uses a ______ model to organize resources. A. Domain B. Folder C. Hierarchical D. Organizational E. Directory
106. MS Exchange transfers mail from the connector interchange, to the ______ database, where it can then be transferred to native MS Mail. A. Public Folder B. Site Container C. Shadow Post Office D. Private Information Store
107. The Internet Mail Service allows communication with ______ systems. A. X.400 B. X.500 C. SNMP D. SMTP E. FTP
108. What core component of MS Exchange Server builds the routing table (GWART) in a site? A. MTA B. System Attendant C. Information Store D. DNS Service E. Directory Service
109. The ______ contains all the recipients in the organization. A. Recipient Container B. Site container C. Global Address List (GAL) D. GWART E. Offline Address Book
110. The System Attendant must be running at all times for the Exchange Server to be functional. It also initiates communication with which of the following? (Choose all that apply) A. Internet Mail Service (IMS) B. Key Management Server C. Information Stores D. Directory Service E. Message Transfer Agent (MTA)
111. How many core components of Exchange Server are installed automatically? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5
112. The IMS supports messages in which of the following formats? (Choose all that apply) A. UUENCODE B. X.400 C. SMNP D. MIME E. SMTP
113. Why is stopping the System Attendant critical? A. Mail is queued until restarted B. It stops all other Exchange services C. No foreign mail is routed D. "Clearing the MTA" E. No answer is correct
114. Which of the following translates, transfers, and delivers messages from Exchange Server to foreign systems? A. Connectors B. MTA C. Translational Bridge D. Source-Route Bridge E. GWART
115. What monitors the state of messaging connections between servers and responds to link monitor mail? A. System Attendant B. Directory Service C. MTA D. Session Manager
116. An Exchange Server can be a DirSync server only. A. True B. False
117. Currently there is no built-in way to have automatic organization-to-organization sharing of information. A. True B. False
118. The Private Information Store and the Public Information Store run as separate services on an Exchange Server. A. True B. False
119. The ______ icon contains public and system folders for the entire organization. A. Folders B. Organization C. Servers D. Information Store E. Directory Store
120. A user only needs to be added once to give that user access to information on all servers within a site. A. True B. False
121. The largest administrative unit is the: A. Organization B. Site C. Site Resource D. Primary Domain Controller E. Server
122. What are the file size limits for the PRIV.EDB, PUB.EDB and DIR.EDB? A. Unlimited B. 16 Gig C. 160 Gig D. 25 Gig E. 10 Gig
123. Currently there is no way to send messages between organizations. A. True B. False
124. Which contains a list of personally created recipients? A. GAL B. POL C. PAB D. PST E. OST
125. ______ are Microsoft Exchange objects that you can send a message to. A. Containers B. Servers C. Users D. Recipients E. Organizations
126. A/an ______ consists of one or more Exchange servers working together within a local area network or permanently connected wide area network. A. Site B. Organization C. Workgroup D. Domain E. Local group
127. How many organizations are recommended if you have separate subsidiaries in isolated sites? A. One for each dial-up location B. One organization C. One top-level organization and a separate organization for each geographically separated subsidiary D. One Organization per grouping of 500 users E. One Organization per 50,000 users, one Site per 500 users
128. In order to group servers in the same site, you must have ______. (Choose all that apply) A. Same Organization Name B. Low bandwidth C. IP support D. A constant LAN connection E. Same Service Account and password
129. A user needs to connect to another server in the site. Which of the following does the user need to do to accomplish this? A. Login in to the other server in the site (you need to know the name of the other server) B. Login to the Key Management Server C. Login to his own server D. Login into both servers (by their name)
130. Which one of the four objects is configured at the site level? A. DS Site Configuration B. Connections C. MTA Site Configuration D. Information Store Site Configuration
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