Exchange


1. If you are approaching your performance targets on a shared mail system, then will you need to upgrade your network for Exchange Server?

A. Not initially if your server has the required hardware for Exchange server
B. Yes, RPC and server activity increases with Exchange
C. Yes, client and server together increases network traffic

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Answer: A

Exchange Srv will have less network activity, but requires higher performance Srvs. You will not need to upgrade your network initially. But the feature rich Exchange Srv will gradually draw more use out of your users. Eventually you will need to upgrade.


2. How should you plan for use of public folders? (Choose all that apply)

A. Plan on decreased network traffic because folders are central
B. Plan on an increase of traffic because users will use them more often
C. Plan for increased RPC traffic

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Answer: A & B

Local folders will definitely reduce traffic; however, the feature rich Exchange Srv will draw more use out of your users. They will use the public folders more often.


3. How many sites can you create within a domain and how many domains within a site?

A. Two, Four
B. Ten, Six
C. Fifteen, unlimited
D. Unlimited, unlimited
E. Unlimited, Ten

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Answer: D

There isn't a direct relationship. Sites may include domains, and there may be many sites in a domain, and a site may map directly to a domain. But still there is no direct relationship. It is beneficial however to use the domain because it eliminates the need for trust relationships, or duplicate accounts, passwords.


4. Which are true about the Exchange Server and NT Domain relationship? (Choose all that apply)

A. Sites may consist of many NT Domains.
B. Domains may consist of many sites.
C. Exchange site cannot map directly to a domain.

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Answer: A & B

Sites may include domains, and there may be many sites in a domain, and a site may map directly to a domain. But still there is no direct relationship. It is beneficial, however, to use the domain because it eliminates the need for trust relationships, or duplicate accounts, passwords.


5. Although it could easily be higher, what is a minimum bandwidth guideline for Exchange Servers to be installed into the same site?

A. 56K
B. 64K
C. T-1
D. 10MB

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Answer: B

This is a general baseline. The real answer is "It Depends".


6. Your usage cost for your link to other servers is high. How would you reduce this cost? (Choose all that apply)

A. Control amount of traffic flowing to that link
B. Steer traffic to off-peak hours
C. Increase number of sites over high bandwidth
D. Add more connectors
E. Add an extra NT server

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Answer: A & B

Always monitor traffic. You can control the traffic in many ways, such as reduce message sizes, and steering traffic to off-peak hours for cheaper rates.


7. What is the maximum character length of an Organization?

A. 64
B. 16
C. 32
D. 8
E. 128

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Answer: A

Keep Org and Site names as short as practical. Avoiding punctuation as well is a good idea.


8. What is the maximum length of a Site Name?

A. 64
B. 32
C. 16
D. 8
E. 128

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Answer: A

General guidelines are to keep Org and Site names as short as practical. Avoiding punctuation as well is a good idea.


9. What is the maximum character length of a Server name?

A. 8
B. 12
C. 15
D. 16
E. 32

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Answer: C

The Exchange Srv name is the same as the NT Srv NetBIOS name.


10. What is the maximum character length of an e-mail display name?

A. 64
B. 256
C. 32
D. 32

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Answer: B

The maximum character length of an e-mail display name is 256.


11. What are restrictions for Exchange server names? (Choose all that apply)

A. Must be 16 characters in length
B. Must be NT Server computer name
C. Cannot be changed unless reinstall
D. Can be up to 20 characters in length
E. Must be unique to the network.

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Answer: B, C & E

Restrictions for Exchange Srv names include; NT Srv computer name, can't be changed unless reinstall, unique to the network, 15 characters in length.


12. Which are true of an alias? (Choose all that apply)

A. It is the POP3 mailbox ID.
B. Can be up to 64 characters in length.
C. Is automatically created from User Manager.
D. Must be mapped to server name.
E. It must be unique.

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Answer: A, B & E

An alias is a short, common name to identify a user (nickname). It must be unique.


13. You have just changed an aliases on one of your mailboxes. What else must you do to complete the process?

A. Add a new mailbox for the new aliases
B. Rename the mailbox
C. Delete the old mailbox
D. Nothing else

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Answer: D

An alias can be changed at any time without issue.


14. Gateways will use ______ names to generate X.400 and X.500 foreign e-mail addresses. (Choose all that apply)

A. Alias
B. Mailbox
C. Folder
D. Site
E. Organization

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Answer: A, D & E

It is important to also know how other components of your system will use names. For instance, your Srv name will be your Exchange Srv name. Gateways use Aliases to generate foreign Email addresses.


15. Which of the following is/are true for SMTP addresses?

A. Most restrictive in terms of the number of characters
B. Most restrictive in terms of allowable characters
C. Make no distinction between upper and lower case letters

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Answer: B & C


16. Which of the following are the most restrictive gateways in terms of number of characters per field (eight)? (Choose all that apply)

A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. SNADS
D. PROFS

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Answer: C & D

SNADS and PROFS are the most restrictive in terms of the eight characters allowed. SMTP is more restrictive in terms of allowable characters. It's not case sensitive and only allows the hyphen as a special character.


17. What tools does Exchange Server come with to help plan and optimize your servers? (Choose all that apply)

A. Exchange Load Simulator
B. Exchange Optimizer
C. Predefined Performance Monitors
D. Exchange Administrator Program
E. System Attendant

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Answer: A, B & C

LoadSim and Perfwiz are included along with predefined NT performance monitors. Systems Attendant and Admin.exe are not used to plan and optimize your Srvs, they are used to manage them.


18. When installing users, always do which of the following? (Choose all that apply)

A. Have one distribution share
B. Consolidate mailboxes
C. Consolidate mission critical folders and gateways on servers with hot swappable drives
D. Spread members of corporate divisions across multiple servers.

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Answer: B & C

Always try and reduce the number of mailboxes. Put critical resources on drives that can be changed on the fly with minimal downtime. Don't forget to test it out. When folders and gateways are mission critical, this will become very important.


19. You have a list of users that you want to periodically send newsletters and publications. What would be the most effective way to do this? (Your choice will need to take into account network traffic.)

A. Public Folder
B. Distribution Lists
C. Mailbox
D. Shared directory
E. Personal folder

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Answer: A

Public folders contain data can be retrieved at will by users, if and when they need the data. Distribution lists (DLs), send data out to everyone, regardless of whether they have a need for it at that time.


20. Which of the following will analyze existing configurations and make recommendations for moving databases on multiple drives?

A. Load generator
B. Exchange Optimizer
C. Admin.exe
D. Performance Monitor
E. System Attendant

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Answer: B

Exchange Optimizer will analyze existing configurations and make recommendations for moving databases on multiple drives.


21. What tool will help a design team project future performance?

A. Load Simulator
B. Exchange Server Administrator Program
C. Exchange Optimizer
D. Performance Monitor
E. System Attendant

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Answer: A

Load Simulator will help a design team project future performance.


22. Which of the following protocols support the use of Remote Procedure Calls? (Choose all that apply)

A. NetBEUI
B. IPX/SPX
C. TPO
D. TCP/IP
E. DLC

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Answer: A, B & D

NetBEUI, IPX/SPX, TCP/IP protocols support the use of Remote Procedure Calls.


23. You have three sites in your organization. You need to control when and who uses the links between them. Which connector would you use?

A. X.400 Connector
B. Site Connector
C. Internet Mail Service

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Answer: A

The X.400 connector provides more control over when and who uses the link.


24. When configuring the site connector's property page, what is the only required field as long as you are using the same service account?

A. Target Site
B. Messaging Bridgehead in the local site
C. Address Space
D. Target Servers

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Answer: A

The site connector requires few configurations and the only required one is the target site.


25. Message traffic costs range from?

A. 0 to 10
B. 0 to 25
C. 0 to 100
D. 1 to 100
E. 0 to 500

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Answer: C

A routing cost of 0 will always be used if available. A cost of 100 will only be used if every other choice is unavailable.


26. A cost of ______ will be used before a cost of 10.

A. 100
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 0

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Answer: D

A routing cost of 0 will always be used if available. A cost of 100 will only be used if every other choice is unavailable.


27. What tool would you use to find the local server's IP configuration?

A. Ping
B. Ipconfig
C. System Attendant
D. WINIPCFG
E. User Manager for Domains

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Answer: B

Ipconfig is a TCP/IP tool that can be used to provide general TCP/IP information. Ipconfig /all gives more detailed information.


28. What core component does the directory replication use between sites?

A. System Attendant
B. Directory Service
C. Information Store
D. MTA

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Answer: D

Intra-site replication works on a push basis, and Inter-site replication works on a pull basis (polling). Message Transfer Agent is the core component it uses between sites.


29. Intra-site replication works on a ______ basis.

A. Push
B. Polling
C. Pull
D. Constant

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Answer: A

Intra-site replication works on a push basis, and Inter-site replication works on a pull basis (polling).


30. Inter-site replication works on a ______ basis.

A. Pull
B. Push
C. Constant
D. Intermediate

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Answer: A

Explanation; see answer 29


31. You try to alter the permissions of an account at a certain site unsuccessfully. What could be a cause? (Choose all that apply)

A. There are no accounts with modify permission privileges on the site.
B. These inherited permissions can't be modified.
C. RPC service is down.

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Answer: A & B


32. You notice that all users have the same permissions after you have created a large group of users. What could be the caus?

A. All sites have same permissions.
B. Users are in the same workgroup.
C. A users' active account was used as a template instead of a new user account.
D. All are in the same domain.

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Answer: C


33. You modify a template to change multiple users. After that, you notice that there was no change. How can you modify multiple mailboxes once they have been created?

A. Use the NT Server or Novell migration utility.
B. Use the Directory Import command.
C. Create a text file and import into the mailboxes.

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Answer: B


34. You set an MTA message size limit. You notice that there is a problem with size limits not reflecting your changes. What could be the cause?

A. Users can override size limits for a short time.
B. Size limits are overlapping in other connectors and gateways.

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Answer: B


35. You get a message from Sally, but Sally is on vacation. How is this possible when she doesn't have remote access?

A. Sally delegated "Send on behalf of" access to another user.
B. Sally delegated "Send as" access to another user.
C. Sally is a public folder.
D. Sally is using "Call Back" Security in RAS where the NT Server is calling her.

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Answer: B


36. You are going to be away from work for an unspecified time. You want your secretary to manage your mailbox but not make decisions. She will forward replies to incoming messages and keep them up-to-date on your expected return date. What kind of delegated access should you permit?

A. Send on Behalf Of
B. Send As
C. Read

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Answer: C


37. You are leaving the country for 2 months. Your vice president is assuming your duties and will have to make final decisions without you. What type of delegate access should you permit?

A. Send on Behalf of
B. Send as
C. Read

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Answer: A


38. John is going out of town and won't have access to his mail but wants to be notified of urgent matters. What type of access should he provide for a co-worker?

A. Read Only
B. Write
C. Change
D. Send As

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Answer: A


39. The sales group has complained that the marketing group has been changing information in their public folder. What can you do for marketing since they require knowledge of what is in the sales public folder? (Choose all that apply)

A. Grant Sales Read/Write permissions
B. Grant Marketing Read Only permissions
C. Grant Sales Read Only permissions

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Answer: A & B


40. You are designing your Exchange Organization. You've decided on a minimum 12-character naming scheme for mailboxes. Name two systems that will have problems with this.

A. SMTP
B. SNADS
C. PROFS
D. X.400
E. cc:Mail

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Answer: B & C


41. You are expecting mail to be sent to a public folder from a user. The user states they cannot see the public folder in the Global address list. What is the cause?

A. The user does not have compose access to the folder.
B. Folders by default are not visible in the GAL (Global Address List).
C. The user is in the wrong domain.
D. The client is not connected to the Public Folder Server.

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Answer: B


42. You notice that processor utilization is intensive. What upgrade would you recommend?

A. Add a second processor.
B. Add more RAM.
C. Add more hard drive space.
D. Upgrade the server to a faster SCSI hard drive system.

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Answer: A


43. You have three geographically separated sites with Internet access. They are currently connected with Site Connectors. What site connector would be a good backup connector in this case?

A. X.400
B. SMTP
C. Internet Mail Service
D. Microsoft Mail Connector
E. Dynamic RAS Connector

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Answer: C


44. Which files can Microsoft Exchange Server be restored from? (Choose all that apply)

A. EDB.CHK
B. TEMP.EDB
C. PRIV.EDB
D. PUB.EDB
E. DIR.EDB

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Answer: C, D & E


45. How can a corrupted .ost file be fixed?

A. Run SCANPST.EXE against it
B. Rename the .ost file to a .pst file, then run SCANPST.EXE against it
C. Copy the file to the server, and then run online maintenance against it overnight

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Answer: A


46. The wide area network has known reliability issues. How can the overall data transmission rate be increased?

A. Increase the MTA checkpoint size
B. Decrease the MTA checkpoint size
C. There is no way known to increase the overall data transmission rate over the defaults

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Answer: B


47. You just purchased Microsoft Exchange Server 5.5 for your company. You were previously using Microsoft Mail 3.x. Which type of system is Exchange in comparison to MS Mail?

A. Client-Server Mail System
B. Shared File system
C. LAN-Based Electronic Mail System
D. Mainframe based Electronic Mail System

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Answer: A


48. The implementation of ______ in a client-server mail system significantly reduces the amount of network traffic in most cases.

A. DHCP
B. Mail Transfer Agents
C. Remote Procedure Calls
D. Message Compression

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Answer: C


49. What client-server message-based function of Exchange Server is served by allowing users to post information on a bulletin board, track customer accounts, and access product information from a reference library?

A. Scheduling
B. Messaging
C. Document sharing
D. Forms
E. Application Design

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Answer: C


50. What client-server based function of Exchange Server is provided by managing personal time, organizing tasks, and coordinating with group meetings?

A. Messaging Services
B. Group information sharing
C. Scheduling
D. Forms
E. Application design

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Answer: C


51. What client-server function of Exchange Server includes message transfer, delivery, routing, and directory services?

A. Scheduling
B. Messaging process
C. Group information sharing
D. Forms
E. Application design

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Answer: B


52. What function of Exchange Server allows designers to develop applications that automate tasks and processes?

A. Forms
B. Messaging services
C. Group information sharing
D. Application design
E. Scheduling

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Answer: D


53. Which are components of Exchange Server? (Choose all that apply)

A. Shared database
B. Active Client
C. Passive Client
D. Active Server
E. Passive Server

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Answer: B & D


54. Exchange Server Enterprise edition comes with the following: (Choose all that apply)

A. cc:Mail Connector
B. X.400
C. Dynamic RAS Connector
D. Internet Mail Service
E. no connectors

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Answer: A, B, C & D


55. Which are security mechanisms available with an Exchange Server system running on an NT Server network? (Choose all that apply)

A. Authentication
B. Access control
C. Data encryption
D. Digital signatures
E. Secure screen lock

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Answer: A, B, C & D


56. Which Exchange security mechanism provides secure logon?

A. Authentication
B. Access control
C. Auditing
D. Data encryption
E. Digital signatures

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Answer: A


57. Which Exchange Server security mechanism allows users to verify the source of information they receive or send?

A. Authentication
B. Auditing
C. Access control
D. Digital Signatures
E. Data encryption

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Answer: D


58. You recently read an article on Exchange and the benefits to your company with organizing, user access, sharing data. After rushing out and purchasing it you have a problem, because no one can get to their e-mail. Outlook client is called the universal inbox, so why can't the employees receive or send anything out? (Choose all that apply)

A. Check to see if TCP/IP is configured properly, it's a good possibility that it's configured improperly.
B. You have to make sure the Exchange Server is not attached to a firewall. Exchange doesn't support this type of connectivity.
C. It is possible that the client is not configured properly.
D. Exchange does not work with Lotus cc:Mail which you have as the mail system for your company.

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Answer: A & C


59. What are the two types of folders used by Exchange Server clients?

A. Personal and Public
B. Private and Public
C. Personal and External
D. External and Private
E. Shared and Personal

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Answer: A


60. Public folders can be securely shared between ______. (Choose all that apply)

A. small numbers of users
B. Every Exchange User in the Organization
C. various groups of users
D. Groupwise only users
E. Eudora only users

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Answer: A, B & C


61. When routing mail to a personal folder, it is still funneled through a user's mailbox on the Exchange Server computer.

A. True
B. False

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Answer: A


62. What are two fundamental ways a user can exchange information?

A. Shared database
B. Sending Information
C. Sharing Information

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Answer: B & C


63. What are some ways to organize information using the Exchange client? (Choose all that apply)

A. Rules
B. Views
C. Finder

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Answer: A & B


64. What allows users to organize and view information in different ways?

A. Rules
B. Views
C. Finder

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Answer: B


65. What would be used to search for a meeting request after a specific date?

A. Rules
B. Views
C. Finder

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Answer: C


66. What makes it difficult to implement security in a shared file mail system?

A. Both a windows and domain logon by the client
B. Each shared file mail system client has read/write permission to every other client's database files.
C. Passive servers cannot restrict access to mail files.
D. Passive servers can only implement share level security.
E. Each shared file mail system client has read permission to every other client's database files.

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Answer: B


67. Which of the following are core components of Exchange Server? (Choose all that apply)

A. Internet Mail Service
B. Directory Service
C. Directory Synchronization Service
D. Message Transfer Agent
E. System Attendant

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Answer: B, D & E


68. Which of the following are optional components and are configured or installed as needed? (Choose all that apply)

A. Internet Mail Service
B. Directory Service
C. Directory Synchronization Service
D. Message Transfer Agent
E. System Attendant

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Answer: A & C


69. Which of the following are used to provide connectivity to other Exchange Server sites and foreign mail systems?

A. Exchange Server Core components
B. Exchange Server Optional components

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Answer: B


70. The ______ stores all information available about an organization's resources and users including mailboxes, public folders, distribution lists, etc.

A. Directory
B. Information Store
C. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process
D. Global Address List
E. Gateway Address Resolution Table (GWART)

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Answer: A


71. The MTA and the Information Store use the ______ to determine the location of a recipient.

A. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process
B. Directory
C. Global Address List
D. Gateway Address Resolution Table (GWART)
E. Information Store

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Answer: B


72. Which is a Windows NT process that is responsible for maintaining and providing directory information to requesting parties?

A. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process
B. Directory Service
C. Information Store
D. Global Address List
E. Gateway Address Resolution Table (GWART)

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Answer: B


73. What Exchange Server service is used whenever a message needs to be sent to another Exchange Server, to a MS Mail postoffice, or to a foreign X.400 system?

A. The Site Connector
B. X.400 Connector
C. MS Mail Connector
D. Message Transfer Agent
E. The Primary Core Exchange Server Process

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Answer: D


74. The MTA is involved in intra-server message delivery.

A. True
B. False

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Answer: B


75. Exchange Server uses MTA to transfer and route from one Exchange Server to another.

A. True
B. False

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Answer: A


76. The Information Store (IS) contains which of the following information? (Choose all that apply)

A. E-mail
B. Server protocols
C. Collaborative applications
D. Mail connectors
E. Address list

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Answer: A & C


77. Which of the following is not contained in the Information Store? (Choose all that apply)

A. Electronic mail messages
B. Documents
C. System files
D. Facsimiles
E. Log files

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Answer: C & E


78. What is the limit on each Information Store database?

A. 16K
B. 16MB
C. 16GB
D. 8GB
E. Unlimited

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Answer: E


79. Which Information Store stores messages from one individual to selected group of users?

A. Private Information Store
B. Public Information Store

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Answer: A


80. Why would you replicate folders within a site and then to additional sites? (Choose all that apply)

A. To reduce network traffic
B. Backup data
C. Balance the load on the servers
D. Provide access to script files

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Answer: A, B & C


81. What core Exchange Server component reclaims space used by deleted directory objects?

A. Directory Service
B. Information Store
C. Directory Synchronization Service
D. System Attendant

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Answer: D


82. Which of the following must be running at all times and stops all other components when halted?

A. Directory Service
B. System Attendant
C. Directory Synchronization Service
D. Message Transfer Agent (MTA)
E. The Information Store

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Answer: B


83. The System Attendant generates which of the following: (Choose all that apply)

A. Foreign e-mail addresses for new recipients
B. Transfers mail between Exchange Servers
C. Builds routing tables for a site
D. Shuts down all services when halted
E. Contains addresses and mailboxes and configuration information about sites

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Answer: A, C & D


84. The Microsoft Mail Connector provides connectivity to: (Choose all that apply)

A. MS Mail for PC Networks
B. AT&T Mail
C. SNADS
D. MS Mail for Appletalk Networks
E. All other LAN based E-Mail systems not covered by the X.400 connector

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Answer: A & D


85. An Exchange Server mimics an MS Mail postoffice in order to send mail to Mail 3.x postoffices and AppleTalk networks. This is done using the:

A. MTA
B. Mail Connector Post Office
C. Upstream Postoffice
D. Requestor Postoffice
E. AppleTalk / MS Mail Postoffice

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Answer: B


86. Which bindery attachments does the Internet Mail Service support: (Choose all that apply)

A. MIME
B. SNMP
C. UUENCODE
D. SMTP
E. FTP

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Answer: A & C


87. Microsoft Exchange Server uses ______ to communicate between with foreign mail systems.

A. MS Exchange Server gateways
B. Message Transfer Agent (MTA)
C. Third-party vendors make the connectors
D. Connectors that ship with Exchange Server

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Answer: D


88. How are schedule free and busy times handled by the Exchange Server?

A. Schedule Distribution is run on a separate PC
B. Schedule Distribution is run on Exchange Server
C. There is one Free/Busy Public folder in each site that services can access

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Answer: C


89. Messages being sent to an Internet address or to a non-X.400 system do not go through the MTA. They flow from the Information Store to the Internet Mail Service or the appropriate gateway. The only time the MTA is involved is if:

A. The MTA is on a different server
B. The X.400 is on a different server
C. The Internet Mail Service is on a different server

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Answer: C


90. The X.400 Connector is integrated into the ______.

A. MS Mail Connector
B. Internet Mail Service
C. X.400 Service
D. MS Exchange MTA
E. Information Store

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Answer: D


91. What are the system requirements to install MS Outlook on Windows NT? (Choose all that apply)

A. 16MB RAM
B. 24MB RAM
C. RPC over TCP/IP
D. 12 MB free disk space
E. AppleTalk

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Answer: A & C


92. Exchange Server must be installed in an existing mail system i.e., cc:Mail or MS Mail.

A. True
B. False

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Answer: B


93. An owner of a resource such as file or a service is allowed to determine who can access it. This is done through ______ security.

A. Share level
B. User Level
C. Authentication

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Answer: B


94. Exchange Server encrypts data in what way?

A. When stored
B. When on the wire
C. When stored on disk and when transmitted on wire
D. Until message is read
E. After the message is deleted

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Answer: C


95. Mail delivered to a personal folder is still funneled through a user's mailbox but is stored where?

A. Exchange Server Private Information Store
B. in the .OST file
C. User.mmf
D. Config.pol
E. in the .PST file

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Answer: E


96. What folder facilitates the exchange of group information?

A. Site folder
B. Public folder
C. Organizational folders
D. Personal folder
E. Server folder

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Answer: B


97. Which encryption mechanism provides source verification to allow users to know the source of info received?

A. Authentication
B. Data Encryption
C. Digital Signature
D. Auditing
E. Logging

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Answer: C


98. The Exchange Client is a universal viewer of what type information? (Choose all that apply)

A. Sent items
B. Email, word-processing, graphs
C. Graphs, voice mail
D. NT Registry
E. Faxes and presentation graphics

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Answer: A, B, C & E


99. What two folders are available in Exchange Server?

A. Directory
B. Event
C. Public
D. Shared
E. Private

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Answer: C & E


100. What are the two fundamental ways in which users exchange information?

A. Reading
B. Sending
C. Sharing
D. Receiving

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Answer: B & C


101. A user can create a public folder to allow which of the following: (Choose all that apply)

A. collaborative applications
B. discussion groups
C. Access to private mailboxes
D. Send mail to an individual user
E. Corporate information available to all employees

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Answer: A, B & E


102. What tool does an individual use to assign another user access to view his messages or folders?

A. Outlook Client
B. Administrator Program
C. NT User Manager for Domains
D. Server Manager

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Answer: A


103. A user can set up a ______ to affect incoming mail and take a variety of actions.

A. View
B. Rule
C. Sort
D. Policy file
E. .mmf file

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Answer: B


104. Users can set up a ______ to organize and view info in different ways.

A. View
B. Rule
C. Query
D. Finder

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Answer: A


105. MS Exchange uses a ______ model to organize resources.

A. Domain
B. Folder
C. Hierarchical
D. Organizational
E. Directory

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Answer: C


106. MS Exchange transfers mail from the connector interchange, to the ______ database, where it can then be transferred to native MS Mail.

A. Public Folder
B. Site Container
C. Shadow Post Office
D. Private Information Store

>> !
Answer: C

A Shadow Post Office is the connector post office which is part of the Microsoft Mail connector that acts as a MS postoffice.


107. The Internet Mail Service allows communication with ______ systems.

A. X.400
B. X.500
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
E. FTP

>> !
Answer: D

The Internet Mail Service can be configured to directly transfer mail to the Internet or to send mail through an SMTP relay host or mail exchanger (MX).


108. What core component of MS Exchange Server builds the routing table (GWART) in a site?

A. MTA
B. System Attendant
C. Information Store
D. DNS Service
E. Directory Service

>> !
Answer: B

System Attendant is responsible for gathering routing information on all the servers in the organization.


109. The ______ contains all the recipients in the organization.

A. Recipient Container
B. Site container
C. Global Address List (GAL)
D. GWART
E. Offline Address Book

>> !
Answer: C

The Global Address List contains all recipients in an organization. Not to be confused with the Recipients which are objects that you can send a message to.


110. The System Attendant must be running at all times for the Exchange Server to be functional. It also initiates communication with which of the following? (Choose all that apply)

A. Internet Mail Service (IMS)
B. Key Management Server
C. Information Stores
D. Directory Service
E. Message Transfer Agent (MTA)

>> !
Answer: B, C & D


111. How many core components of Exchange Server are installed automatically?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

>> !
Answer: D

4 Core Components of Exchange Server are created and installed automatically. They are the: Directory Service, Message Transfer Agent, System Attendant, and the Information Store.


112. The IMS supports messages in which of the following formats? (Choose all that apply)

A. UUENCODE
B. X.400
C. SMNP
D. MIME
E. SMTP

>> !
Answer: A & D

IMS supports both MIME and UUENCODE. SMTP is the delivery method.


113. Why is stopping the System Attendant critical?

A. Mail is queued until restarted
B. It stops all other Exchange services
C. No foreign mail is routed
D. "Clearing the MTA"
E. No answer is correct

>> !
Answer: B

All core components are dependent on System Attendant. If it is not running then nothing runs on the Exchange Server.


114. Which of the following translates, transfers, and delivers messages from Exchange Server to foreign systems?

A. Connectors
B. MTA
C. Translational Bridge
D. Source-Route Bridge
E. GWART

>> !
Answer: A

MS Exchange Servers uses different connectors developed by Microsoft and third-parties to connect to foreign mail systems.


115. What monitors the state of messaging connections between servers and responds to link monitor mail?

A. System Attendant
B. Directory Service
C. MTA
D. Session Manager

>> !
Answer: A

Link monitors are used to verify that a test message is received by a server in the same site, different site, or a foreign system.


116. An Exchange Server can be a DirSync server only.

A. True
B. False

>> !
Answer: B

When more than one MS mail post office exists on a network, a process called dirsync enables the sharing of directory information between those multiple post offices.


117. Currently there is no built-in way to have automatic organization-to-organization sharing of information.

A. True
B. False

>> !
Answer: A

NT Server uses domains to group its services, users and groups. Trust relationships allow two domains to be grouped together. Currently, there is no way to group Organizations together. You can use connectors to send mail between them. Combining them is not a feature at this point.


118. The Private Information Store and the Public Information Store run as separate services on an Exchange Server.

A. True
B. False

>> !
Answer: B

Both the Private Information Store and the Public Information Store run under a single service, the Information Store service.


119. The ______ icon contains public and system folders for the entire organization.

A. Folders
B. Organization
C. Servers
D. Information Store
E. Directory Store

>> !
Answer: A

The order in which containers appear in the administrator program indicates the level you will administrate. The folder container administrates the organization's folders.


120. A user only needs to be added once to give that user access to information on all servers within a site.

A. True
B. False

>> !
Answer: A

Much like an NT domain, a site allows you to create a user once and have access across the site.


121. The largest administrative unit is the:

A. Organization
B. Site
C. Site Resource
D. Primary Domain Controller
E. Server

>> !
Answer: A

The Organization is at the top of the Exchange hierarchy; therefore, it is the largest unit.


122. What are the file size limits for the PRIV.EDB, PUB.EDB and DIR.EDB?

A. Unlimited
B. 16 Gig
C. 160 Gig
D. 25 Gig
E. 10 Gig

>> !
Answer: B

With Exchange Server 5.5 there is unlimited storage file size for PRIV.EDB, PUB.EDB, and DIR.EDB.


123. Currently there is no way to send messages between organizations.

A. True
B. False

>> !
Answer: B

The use of connectors allows mail to be sent between organizations.


124. Which contains a list of personally created recipients?

A. GAL
B. POL
C. PAB
D. PST
E. OST

>> !
Answer: C

The Personal Address Book (PAB) is a component of Outlook, where you can store personal contacts that no one else needs.


125. ______ are Microsoft Exchange objects that you can send a message to.

A. Containers
B. Servers
C. Users
D. Recipients
E. Organizations

>> !
Answer: D

Recipients can be folders, distribution list, mailboxes and any object that a message can be sent to. You can send a message to a personal folder via its appropriate mailbox, etc.


126. A/an ______ consists of one or more Exchange servers working together within a local area network or permanently connected wide area network.

A. Site
B. Organization
C. Workgroup
D. Domain
E. Local group

>> !
Answer: A

Servers in a site function together to bring messaging to all it's recipients. They can be managed centrally as one unit.


127. How many organizations are recommended if you have separate subsidiaries in isolated sites?

A. One for each dial-up location
B. One organization
C. One top-level organization and a separate organization for each geographically separated subsidiary
D. One Organization per grouping of 500 users
E. One Organization per 50,000 users, one Site per 500 users

>> !
Answer: B

Remember only one organization because you can't group them together like domains. When they say it's at the top, it's at the top.


128. In order to group servers in the same site, you must have ______. (Choose all that apply)

A. Same Organization Name
B. Low bandwidth
C. IP support
D. A constant LAN connection
E. Same Service Account and password

>> !
Answer: A, D & E

High bandwidth, RPC support, and a constant connection is a must because of the volume of traffic. They are essential to group servers in a site.


129. A user needs to connect to another server in the site. Which of the following does the user need to do to accomplish this?

A. Login in to the other server in the site (you need to know the name of the other server)
B. Login to the Key Management Server
C. Login to his own server
D. Login into both servers (by their name)

>> !
Answer: C

A user only has to login to his domain, and the user doesn't need to know the name of the servers. The logical grouping of sites makes the server name transparent.


130. Which one of the four objects is configured at the site level?

A. DS Site Configuration
B. Connections
C. MTA Site Configuration
D. Information Store Site Configuration

>> !
Answer: B

A connection is a site configurable object.