Essentials


1. Termination of the bus using newer SCSI disk and controller combinations is simple because new technology uses what?

A. The elimination of the need to terminate
B. Active termination
C. Passive termination
D. Newer SCSI drives use a Master/Slave relationship

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Answer: B


2. Over the years, it has been documented that the majority of SCSI hard disk problems are caused by which of the following?

A. Using substandard cables
B. POST configuration errors
C. Improper termination
D. SCSI disk head problems
E. Wrong ID settings

>> !
Answer: A


3. While driving to a customer's site, you are thinking of the possible causes of their symptoms. The insurance agent has had intermittent performance and other trouble from the new SCSI drives installed last week in the NT 4.0 server. Which three items could be the cause of this?

A. Possible bad cable
B. ESD
C. SCSI termination
D. SCSI IDs
E. POST results

>> !
Answer: A, B & C


4. SCSI disk performance is erratic on the new NT 4.0 EISA server. You suspect that the SCSI IDs are not properly set. Normally, how should they be set? (Choose all that apply)

A. HBA set for 7
B. Devices other than the HBA; 0 to 6 for highest to lowest priority
C. Devices other than the HBA; 6 to 0 for highest to lowest priority
D. HBA set for 0
E. Devices other than the HBA; 1 to 7 for highest to lowest priority

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Answer: A & B


5. Name three characteristics of SCSI and SCSI-II.

A. SCSI is an ANSI standard
B. Drives are limited to 528 MB of capacity
C. Eight devices, including the controller, may be installed on the bus
D. They have fast throughput
E. The interface is an extension of the ST-506 interface

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Answer: A, C & D


6. What points should you keep in mind when working with SCSI hard disk cables? (Choose all that apply)

A. SCSI can use 50 or 68 pin cables
B. Pin 1 has a colored stripe
C. To accommodate all of the devices, the bus length may exceed 25 feet
D. Maximum distance between connectors is 18 inches
E. The twist in the cable is close to pin 1

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Answer: A, B & D


7. You have just completed the installation of the SCSI HBA and disk drives in a PC that will be an NT 4.0 server. When you powered on the system the PC "locked up". The PC booted with a floppy before the SCSI install. What could be the cause of this problem? (Choose all that apply)

A. IRQ conflict
B. I/O conflict
C. SCSI ID of HBA conflicting with a hard drive
D. DMA conflict
E. Base Memory conflict

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Answer: A, B, C, D & E


8. What drive type do you enter in CMOS for SCSI hard drives? (Choose all that apply)

A. Drive type 47
B. Drive type 0
C. Closest drive type that matches the number of Cylinders, Heads and Sectors
D. Not Installed
E. Drive type 1

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Answer: B & D

Drive type zero and not installed means the same thing.


9. What steps must you perform to physically install two IDE hard disks into a PC? (Choose all that apply)

A. Set the disk drive types in CMOS
B. Configure and install the drives
C. Set the Jumper on the hard disk to master or slave
D. Set the drive ID to 0 - 6, depending on desired priority
E. Attach cable

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Answer: A, B, C & E

Configure and install an IDE interface board--this will be performed only if the motherboard does not support the IDE interface.


10. Two new SCSI drives will be added to an existing NT 4.0 server. There are no empty drive bays in the PC so the drives will have to be installed in an external cabinet. What cable precautions must be observed? (Choose all that apply)

A. Because of the possible amount of external devices, the SCSI bus may exceed 25 feet
B. A twenty-five pin cable must be used to connect external devices to the HBA
C. Reduce crosstalk and match impedance by purchasing a SCSI approved external cable
D. Pay attention to the type of connectors each system component requires

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Answer: C & D

When installing SCSI drives externally, be sure to use a SCSI approved cable and use the proper connectors.


11. The disk drive subsystem of a newly updated NT 4.0 server has been identified as a bottleneck area. You have been contracted to replace the IDE drives with two SCSI drives. The server has an old 486DX motherboard with no SCSI support built-in. What steps will need to be completed? (Choose all that apply)

A. Verify a good, up-to-date backup exists
B. Configure the disks in a master/slave relationship
C. Install a SCSI interface board in one of the system's expansion slots
D. Configure the disk IDs on each hard drive
E. Configure the SCSI controller to support TCP/IP

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Answer: A, C & D


12. When installing and configuring IDE hard disk drives in a PC system, what are the possible configuration modes that can be set on the IDE controllers?

A. Single drive only
B. Primary
C. Master
D. Secondary
E. Slave

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Answer: A


13. What points should you keep in mind when working with IDE hard disk cables? (Choose all that apply)

A. Pin one has a colored stripe
B. A forty-pin cable must be used
C. The cable twist must be near pin one
D. Cable may not exceed eighteen inches in length
E. Distance between connectors on the cable may not exceed eighteen inches

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Answer: A, B & D

Master and Slave are set on the drives, not on the controller. There is a possibility of having a Primary and Secondary controller though.


14. What IDE hard disk parameters can be set in the computer's CMOS? (Choose all that apply)

A. Number of cylinders
B. Number of heads
C. Capacity in Mbytes
D. Write pre-compensation
E. Drive ID

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Answer: A, B, C & D


15. What rules should you follow when entering IDE drive parameters into CMOS? (Choose all that apply)

A. Do not choose more cylinders than the drive physically has
B. Choose the type with the highest capacity in MB, not exceeding the physical capacity
C. Choose the number of logical heads
D. Use type 47 if the BIOS does not have an exact drive type match, or one that is acceptable
E. Exceeding the physical number of C-H-S will ensure all the full drive will be utilized

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Answer: A, B & D

IDE hard drive parameters are automatically read from the disk with newer BIOS chips but must be manually entered on older architectures. Incorrectly setting the parameters will result in at best poor performance but will most likely render the drive inaccessible. The best thing to do if the values are unknown is to get on the Internet and try to find a spec sheet for the drive. Most manufacturers have posted all their drive specs.


16. If you define your drive type in CMOS with "User Defined," what precaution should you take?

A. Record the type and parameters on a label and place it on the hard drive
B. Disable the auto detect feature
C. Choose the highest number of logical heads
D. Enable the auto detect feature

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Answer: A

The BIOS auto detect feature eliminates the need for you to set the drive, other than it being set to auto detect!


17. You have completed the physical installation of two new IDE hard disks in a computer. What are your next steps? (Choose all that apply)

A. Perform a high level format
B. Edit the FAT table
C. Low level format the drive
D. Partition the disk
E. Backup the disks

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Answer: A & D


18. List three items that describe the network device interface specification (NDIS)?

A. An interface between the MAC sublayer and protocol drivers
B. Creates a flexible environment for data exchange
C. Defines the software interface used by protocol drivers to communicate with the network adapter card
D. Operates at the Network layer
E. Manages traffic routing and control

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Answer: A, B & C

The advantage of NDIS is that it offers protocol multiplexing so that multiple protocol stacks can be used at the same time. NDIS 3.1 supports Plug and Play.


19. Select the items that describe network analyzers. (Choose all that apply)

A. They are also called Protocol Analyzers
B. Use the /R format command so the data will be recoverable if anything goes wrong
C. They function in real-time network traffic analysis
D. Perform packet capture, decoding and transmission functions
E. Create documentation on currently installed cabling, software, file servers, clients, BIOS and interface cards

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Answer: A, C, D & E

Protocol analyzers generate statistics based on the network traffic to help create a picture of the networks cabling, software, file server, clients and interface cards. Most have a built-in Time-domain reflectometers (TDRs).


20. You are installing a 1.6-Gbyte IDE hard drive in a Pentium Workstation. You search through a box of drive cables and find many types. How many pins should the correct cable have?

A. 20
B. 25
C. 34
D. 40
E. 50

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Answer: D


21. Name two ways of creating the DOS boot sector on a hard drive.

A. FORMAT command
B. FDISK command
C. This is created when performing a low-level format
D. With the computer's SETUP utility
E. By performing a SYS command

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Answer: A & E

The high-level format creates the DOS boot sector. The DOS FORMAT command is the utility used to perform the high-level format.


22. Which drive type uses a high-speed parallel interface standardized by ANSI?

A. ST-506
B. ESDI
C. IDE
D. EIDE
E. SCSI

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Answer: E


23. What is the function of a Remote Boot PROM?

A. To establish communication with the server and return the appropriate boot information to the Workstation
B. Provides a virtual floppy disk for the Workstation
C. To store a disk image file, from which the Workstation will boot
D. To establish communication with the server and execute DOSGEN
E. Provides a RAM disk for the Workstation

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Answer: A

Allows a diskless Workstation.


24. Network Interface card PROMs provide network security because...

A. they have wireless networking
B. they allow remote-boot diskless startup
C. they block access to the server
D. they block access to the Workstation

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Answer: B

Remote-Boot PROMs allow computers with no hard drive or floppy drive to have access to the network through the use of their memory.


25. A digital signal is best described as:

A. Having two states
B. Undergoing constant change
C. A signal where phase is an important consideration
D. Not easily used to represent binary numbers
E. Limited to only two signal levels

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Answer: A

A Baseband system will use digital signaling over a single frequency as "on/off" states.


26. What are the methods that describe how a digital signal may represent data?

A. FSK and ASK
B. PSK and FSK
C. Time and amplitude
D. Current state and state transition
E. Token passing and contention

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Answer: D

Baseband transmission uses digital signaling over a single frequency. The digital signal uses the complete bandwidth with a discrete digital signal. Current state and state transition are ways in which data may be represented by a digital signal. Token passing and contention are access methods for networks.


27. Signals that rely on a continuously variable state of waves are:

A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Variable
D. Asynchronous
E. Synchronous

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Answer: B

Broadband systems use analog signaling and a range of frequencies. Analog signals are continuous and non-discrete. Baseband networks are digital and uses discrete pulses of electricity or light.


28. Two common ways to have two data flow paths for broadband transmission are:

A. Mid-split broadband configuration
B. Set the parameters for frequency, cycles per second, and amplitude
C. Use a dual-cable configuration
D. Use repeaters
E. Use amplifiers

>> !
Answer: A & C

Broadband uses amplifiers to regenerate analog signals but since broadband is unidirectional it must have a way to have two data paths for transmission. This means either using a split or a dual cable configuration--one for sending and one for receiving. Using mid-split method, the bandwidth is divided into two channels, each using different frequencies to support separate transmitting and receiving of signals. Each device on a baseband network can already transmit bi-directional. Some can even transmit both directions at the same time.


29. A baseband system is best described as:

A. A system which uses the entire capacity of the medium for a signal
B. A system which supports multiple signals at the same time on the medium
C. Usually using analog signals
D. Allowing multiple frequencies when used in full duplex

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Answer: A

Baseband systems use the entire communication channel capacity to transmit a single data signal. Baseband systems are bi-directional.


30. A bandwidth use method that allows several frequencies to occupy a single medium is:

A. Baseband
B. Digital baseband
C. Broadband
D. Filtered media
E. Synchronous baseband

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Answer: C

Broadband uses analog signaling and a range of frequencies.


31. What type of cable would you recommend a University client use if they were going to connect two buildings on different campuses? The campuses are approximately 1.2 miles apart, and high bandwidth is a must.

A. STP
B. UTP
C. Coax
D. RG11
E. Fiber-optic

>> !
Answer: E

Fiber-optic cable length can be up to 2 kilometers or 6,562 feet. One mile is 5,280 feet, making the requirement a distance of 6,336 feet.


32. Which of the following accurately describes fiber-optic cable? (Choose all that apply)

A. Capable of connecting systems that are a mile apart
B. Absolutely immune to EMI
C. Perfect for environments where network administrators need simple components for a new LAN
D. Distance between hub and node(s) must be between 0.5 meters and 100 meters
E. Slightly more cost effective than 10baseT

>> !
Answer: A & B

Fiber-optic cable length can be up to 2 kilometers or 6,562 feet. It is completely immune to electromagnetic interference and is rather costly in comparison to other options. Where great distances and high security is needed, fiber-optic is often required.


33. You are using Thinnet cable for a 25-user network and have employed a new vendor to add four new computers. After the vendor add the computers on Friday evening and left for a long weekend you find out that nobody can access the server. You quickly write this proposed solution for overtime on Saturday:

Check the network cable that was added for the proper type.
Correct open connections and cable breaks with a network analyzer.
Check total network cable lengths against maximums specified for the network type and check for properly installed terminators.

After checking all items in the proposed solution, the network operates normally. Which three options could have caused the problem?

A. One cable segment was frayed
B. One cable segment exceeded 328 feet by a few feet
C. One of the cable segments used RG 62/U cable while all the others used RG 58A/U
D. One 307 foot cable segment had a BNC barrel connector in the middle of it
E. One of the cable connections was loose

>> !
Answer: A, C & E

Thinnet cable has a maximum usable cable length of 607 feet or 185 meters. It is imperative that the proper type of cable be used. These two types of cable cannot be used together. A BNC barrel connector can be used to connect two shorter segments into one longer one. A loose cable connection can disrupt network activity. As a conversion tip, 1 Meter = 3.281 Feet. (185 Meters = 606.985 Feet).


34. Thinnet cable can carry a signal up to approximately what distance?

A. 500 meters (about 1,640 feet)
B. 185 meters (about 607 feet)
C. 100 meters (about 328 feet)
D. 2 kilometers (about 6,562 feet)

>> !
Answer: B

Thinnet coaxial cable (10Base2) transmits at 10 Mbps up to about 607 feet per cable segment.


35. Thicknet cable carries a signal up to approximately what distance?

A. 500 meters (about 1,640 feet)
B. 185 meters (about 607 feet)
C. 100 meters (about 328 feet)
D. 2 kilometers (about 6,562 feet)

>> !
Answer: A

Thicknet cable transmits at 10 Mbps up to about 1,640 feet per cable segment.


36. UTP cable can carry a signal up to approximately what distance?

A. 500 meters (about 1,640 feet)
B. 185 meters (about 607 feet)
C. 100 meters (about 328 feet)
D. 2 kilometers (about 6,562 feet)

>> !
Answer: C

Unshielded Twisted Pair cable is 10BaseT transmitting normally at 10 Mbps but recently at 100 Mbps (with fast hubs and cards) up to about 328 feet (328.1 ft, to be exact).


37. Thinnet is in the RG-58 family. What would its impedance be in ohms?

A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. 150

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Answer: B

RG-58 is coaxial cable with 50-ohm resistance.


38. Thicknet is connected to a Network adapter card with which type of connector?

A. DB-25
B. AUI
C. BNC
D. RG-45
E. RG-11

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Answer: B

Thicknet uses a DB-15 connector also called DIX or AUI. A transceiver and a repeater can interconnect Thicknet with Thinnet.


39. True or False? Without a BNC terminator at each end of the bus to absorb stray signals, a bus network will not function.

A. True
B. False

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Answer: A

BNC terminators must close each end of the bus cable.


40. How far can Thicknet carry a signal?

A. 1500 feet
B. 1550 feet
C. 1640 feet
D. 1650 feet
E. 1600 feet

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Answer: C

Thicknet can carry a signal 500 meters (1640.5 feet). As a conversion tip, 1 m = 3.281 feet.


41. Ethernet 10Base2 and 10Base5 use ______ -ohm terminators.

A. 93
B. 75
C. 125
D. 300
E. 50

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Answer: E

Ethernet 10Base2 and 10Base5 use 50-ohm terminators. 10Base2 transmits at 10 Mbps over a segment length of about 185 meters (the "2" represents "about 200 meters"). 10Base2 uses thin coaxial cable with a minimum segment length of .5 meters (20 inches) and no more than 30 nodes (computers or repeaters) per 185 meter segment. Thicknet was designed to support a backbone for a large department or an entire building. Its maximum segment length is 500 meters.


42. How can Thicknet and Thinnet be used together? (Choose all that apply)

A. Thicknet is good for backbones and Thinnet is used for branch segments
B. Thicknet has a larger copper core than Thinnet and can carry signals much farther
C. Transceivers attach to the Thicknet cable and the transceiver cable's AUI connector plugs into a repeater
D. Branching segments of Thinnet plug into the repeater and connect the computers to the network
E. Branching segments of Thinnet plug into the transceiver and connect computers to the network

>> !
Answer: A, B, C & D

Thicknet is good for backbones and Thinnet is used for branch segments. Thicknet has a larger copper core than Thinnet and can carry signals much farther. Transceivers attach to the Thicknet cable and the transceiver cable's AUI connector plugs into a repeater. Branching segments of Thinnet plug into the repeater and connect the computers to the network.


43. What is the length of a 10BaseFL segment?

A. 1000 meters
B. 1640 meters
C. 1640 feet
D. 2000 feet
E. 2000 meters

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Answer: E

The maximum distance for a 10BaseFL segment is 2000 meters. This is used for running Ethernet over fiber-optic cable. 10BaseFL is 10 Mbps, baseband over fiber-optic cable.


44. Which OSI Reference Model layer is used to establish end-to-end communications between computers?

A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Transport
D. Session
E. Physical

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Answer: D

The Session layer of the OSI Reference Model provides end-to-end communication integrity. The OSI Reference Model Session layer allows two computers to communicate and maintain control over a single session.


45. You are installing an SMC Ethercard Plus ELITE16T NIC into a computer with the following configuration: IRQ 10, PORT 300, MEM CC00. To what area of memory does the "MEM CC00" refer?

A. Conventional
B. Upper
C. High
D. Expanded
E. Extended

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Answer: B

MEM CC00 is a hexadecimal reference to upper memory.


46. Where can Ethernet transceiver devices be located? (Choose all that apply)

A. Built into the NIC
B. The transceiver function is written into the MLID driver
C. Ethernet does not use transceivers
D. External to the NIC

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Answer: A & D

Some cards have both external and on-board transceivers.


47. What are the two most common network adapter problems?

A. Base I/O Port addresses
B. IRQ conflicts
C. Base Memory addresses
D. Transceiver settings

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Answer: B & D

Software settings must usually match settings on the card.


48. To test new cables for shorts which instrument would you use?

A. A voltmeter
B. An ohmmeter
C. A Hewlett-Packard
D. An RG-58A/U

>> !
Answer: B

A network or protocol analyzer could also be used. A voltmeter measures AC or DC voltage between two electronic points. An Ohmmeter measures resistance or continuity between two points in a cable to determine if cable has an open or reveals a short.


49. Which two selections identify a possible CPU or Bus I/O bottleneck in a Microsoft NT 4.0 server?

A. 386 20-MHz motherboard with 64 MB RAM
B. BUS Master Disk Controller
C. I/O devices and the CPU access memory simultaneously
D. PCI disk controller
E. ISA motherboard

>> !
Answer: A & E

The ISA data bus operates at 8 MHz, regardless of the CPU speed. Minimum CPU requirements for NT server is 486/33 CPU or higher.


50. What type of network topology will cause all computers on a network to go down if only one computer cable goes bad and becomes disconnected from the network?

A. Star
B. Hub
C. Bus
D. Ring

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Answer: C

Using Bus topology if the cable is not functioning between terminators the entire network will be down.


51. In your latest network installation, you have chosen to use a hub. What are three characteristics of hubs?

A. Hubs can be used for network gateways
B. Hubs can be either active or passive
C. Hybrid hubs can use different cable types
D. Hubs facilitate network troubleshooting

>> !
Answer: B, C & D

The three types of hubs are active, passive, and hybrid. A hybrid hub can connect different cable types to the same hub.


52. What transmission technique uses amplifiers for regeneration of analog signals?

A. Analog
B. Baseband
C. Broadband
D. Digital

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Answer: C

Broadband systems use amplifiers to regenerate the analog signal.


53. What type of connector is used to connect twisted-pair cable to a network adapter card?

A. UTP-45
B. RJ-11
C. RJ-45
D. BNC-T

>> !
Answer: C

RJ-45 connectors are used to connect Unshielded Twisted Pair cable. RJ-45 connectors house 8 wires (4 twisted pairs) connections.


54. Your office location is being remodeled. Your supervisor tells you that this is an ideal time to finally install a network since they are tearing out the ceiling and putting in a false, dropped overhead ceiling with lift-out, sound-proof panels. She directs you to purchase the best coaxial cable for the job and to string it overhead and between the walls during the remodeling process. What cable do you purchase?

A. PVC grade
B. BNC grade
C. Plenum grade
D. Wall grade

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Answer: C

Plenum cabling is made of special material that is fire resistant and is designed to give off less poisonous chemical fumes in case of fire. It may also be specified in local building codes for overhead use.


55. To finish designing your network, you must decide what adapter cards to use. To aid your decision, what three statements about the network cards that you will use are correct?

A. Data is held temporarily in the network adapter card transceiver
B. Sending adapter cards must have the same transmission speeds as receiving adapter cards
C. Each network card must have a unique address
D. Network adapter cards convert parallel data to serial data

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Answer: B, C & D

Each Network adapter card must have a unique network address that will convert the parallel input from the computer bus into a serial output. Adapter cards transmit at a certain speed and each receiving adapter must receive at the transmission speed of the sending adapter.


56. What type of wireless transmission would you configure for transferring data from one computer to another rather than communicate among several computers?

A. Infrared
B. Point-to-Point
C. Bridge
D. Transceiver

>> !
Answer: A

Point-to-point communication uses only two systems to make the connection. This type of system will transfer data between computers and between computers and other devices such as printers or bar code readers.


57. What is the specification for thin Ethernet cable?

A. Category 5
B. RG-59, 75 Ohm
C. RG-58, 50 Ohm
D. Category 3
E. RG-8, 50 Ohm

>> !
Answer: C

Thinnet uses RG-58, 50-Ohm cable.


58. What bus architecture would you use for your network computers that will be running CAD/CAM and photographic software applications?

A. EISA
B. MCA
C. PCI
D. VL-Bus

>> !
Answer: C

The PCI bus uses a 32 bit bus and PCI video cards are generally faster than VLB or others for graphics intensive operations.


59. What cable type is most commonly used for "thin Ethernet"?

A. RG-59, 75 OHM
B. RG-58, 50 OHM
C. Category 5
D. RG-62, 93 OHM

>> !
Answer: B

Thinnet commonly uses RG-58 A/U cable.


60. You have just installed a Microsoft NT 4.0 Server as the third server at a large corporation headquarters but cannot log on to the domain. You are able to work only on your server and cannot see any other servers within the domain. What is a likely cause of the problem?

A. An IRQ conflict
B. A DMA conflict
C. A Base Memory conflict
D. A Hard disk address conflict

>> !
Answer: A

This is caused by an IRQ conflict in the new server. Two or more devices are using the same interrupt. When a device, in this case the NIC card, raises an interrupt, the CPU is not sure what device raised it. The server in question can transmit because the CPU sends data to the NIC via the I/O address. In this case you can transmit but not receive.


61. You have just installed a NE2000 Ethernet network adapter card in a workstation with the following configuration: IRQ=3, I/O=360, MEM=CC000. What type of problem could result from this installation?

A. No problem, the PC is configured correctly
B. A potential IRQ conflict with COM1
C. A potential IRQ conflict with COM2
D. Printing to LPT1 will not happen when the LAN drivers are loaded

>> !
Answer: C

I/O Address 360 conflicts with the I/O Adress of the LPT1 port but will not necessarily prevent printing. The I/O address is a RANGE of addresses; 360 = 360-37Fh. LPT1 uses 378-37Fh. H=hex. IRQ 3 is used by COM2. If COM2 is assigned to another device, like a mouse, and the mouse driver is loaded, a conflict will occur. The MEM=CC000 does not conflict with Upper memory; a sign of the board MLID driver loading.


62. What is the function of a Remote Boot PROM?

A. To establish communication with the server and return the appropriate boot information to the workstation
B. Provides a virtual floppy disk for the workstation
C. To store a disk image file, from which the workstation will boot
D. To establish communication with the server and execute DOSGEN

>> !
Answer: A

Allows a diskless workstation by establishing communication with the server and returning the appropriate boot information.


63. How do Network Interface card PROMs provide network security?

A. They have wireless networking
B. They allow remote-boot diskless startup
C. They block access to the server
D. They block access to the workstation

>> !
Answer: B

Remote-Boot PROMs allow computers with no hard drive or floppy drive to have access to the network using their memory.


64. Signals that rely on a continuously variable state of waves are:

A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Variable
D. Asynchronous

>> !
Answer: B

Broadband systems use analog signaling and a range of frequencies. Analog signals are continuous and non-discrete.


65. You are establishing a network and need to consider ways to have two data flow paths for broadband transmission. What are two common ways to have two data flow paths for broadband transmission?

A. Use a dual-cable configuration
B. Set the parameters for frequency, cycles per second, and amplitude
C. Use repeaters
D. Use a mid-split configuration

>> !
Answer: A & D

Broadband uses amplifiers to regenerate analog signals, not repeaters, but since broadband is unidirectional it must have a way to have two data paths for transmission. This means either using a split or a dual cable configuration - one for sending and one for receiving.


66. What type of cable would you recommend that a corporate client should use if they were going to connect two buildings on different sites together? The sites are approximately 1.2 miles apart, and high bandwidth is a must.

A. STP
B. UTP
C. Coax
D. Fiber

>> !
Answer: D

Fiber-optic is the best cable to use when connecting sites up to 2 km or 6562 feet apart.


67. When installing the Ethernet NIC into a PC, what potential conflicts may already exist?

A. COM1 uses IRQ 3
B. COM2 uses IRQ 4
C. COM2 uses IRQ 3
D. COM1 uses IRQ 4

>> !
Answer: C

You probably experienced this the first time you installed an Ethernet network card. COM1 uses INT 4, COM2 uses INT 3. Interrupt 3 is the default for the Eagle/Novell NE2000 NIC.


68. Which device converts an Ethernet signal on the wire into a form the PC can recognize and use?

A. AUI
B. DIX
C. Transceiver
D. CSMA/CA

>> !
Answer: C

A transceiver for Thinnet Ethernet uses a vampire tap or piercing tap to make the actual physical connection. Connection is made with an AUI port connector on the card.


69. What kind of terminator must be used on ethernet 10Base2 and 10Base5 networks?

A. 93 ohm
B. 75 ohm
C. 50 ohm
D. 100 ohm

>> !
Answer: C

50-Ohm terminators are used on the cable ends and they must test at 50 ohms.


70. A disk channel includes which four components?

A. HBA
B. Controller
C. Storage Devices
D. Motherboard
E. Cabling

>> !
Answer: A, B, C & E


71. What are some advantages of using Remote Boot workstations? (Choose all that apply)

A. Phase
B. Security
C. Cost
D. Reduced risk of viruses
E. Users do not need to handle floppy disks

>> !
Answer: B, C , D & E

A special chip called a PROM can be used on a network adapter card for a high security workstation with no disk drives.


72. What device drivers loaded in the CONFIG.SYS file enable the use of memory above 640 KB? (Choose all that apply)

A. DEVICE=C:\DOS\HIMEM SYS
B. DEVICE=C:\DOS\EMM386 SYS
C. DOS=HIGH,UBM
D. DEVICEHIGH=C:\DOS\HIMEM SYS
E. DEVICE=C:\DOS\EMM386 EXE NOEMS

>> !
Answer: A & E

The correct syntax in the config.sys file is Device= followed by the complete path. Himem.sys must be loaded to use high memory.


73. When discussing CPU-detected errors that generate abend messages, one must understand that the processor can interrupt program execution by issuing an interrupt or an exception. Which four selections define or describe the issued interrupt or exception?

A. An interrupt is generated by an external device that requires attention
B. The processor responding to a condition it detected while executing an instruction causes an exception
C. Faults, traps, or aborts are classifications of exceptions
D. An exception is a serious error because it indicates some degree of memory corruption
E. EMIs are types of exceptions related to abends

>> !
Answer: A, B, C & E

Interrupts or exceptions are interpreted by the processor to handle external device problems. Exceptions can be classified as faults, traps or aborts and are not necessarily considered serious errors as a result of memory faults.


74. Which selections are characteristics of NDIS? (Choose all that apply)

A. Permits single card to support multiple protocol drivers
B. Supports multiple adapter cards
C. Any transport protocol can talk to any network adapter card
D. Allows communication between MAC and transport protocol drivers at the transport and Session layer
E. The Protocol and MAC drivers initially establish communication through binding

>> !
Answer: A, B, C, D & E

NDIS allows for a flexible environment of data exchange. This interface is used by protocol drivers to communicate with the NIC and offers protocol multiplexing so that multiple protocol stacks can be used at the same time. The protocol manager establishes MAC and Transport protocol driver connection and is responsible for routing network requests to the appropriate driver.


75. Which statements concerning ODI are correct? (Choose all that apply)

A. The ODI stack has two parts
B. One part of the ODI stack is the MLID
C. Allows OSPF to calculate routes
D. One part of the ODI stack is the LSL
E. Provides an interface to the transport protocols

>> !
Answer: A, B, D & E

ODI was developed by Apple and Novell to simplify driver development and to provide support for multiple protocols on the same card.


76. True or False? NetBEUI is a transport protocol that does not support routing.

A. True
B. False

>> !
Answer: A

NetBEUI is NetBIOS extended user interface. Network vendors separated NetBIOS, a Session layer protocol, so that it could be used with other routable transport protocols. NetBEUI is a transport protocol and does not support routing.


77. Which three selections describe NWLink?

A. Does not support routing
B. Microsoft's version of IPX/SPX
C. A transport protocol
D. NWLink IPX determines packet type during setup
E. The IPX protocol is not tied to a particular frame type

>> !
Answer: B, C & E

NWLink, a transport protocol, is Microsoft's version of IPX/SPX. The IPX protocol is not tied to a particular frame type. In Token Ring, there are two IPX supported frames. A frame type is the structure of headers added by the Data Link layer to the data packet.


78. At the Physical layer, there are two basic connection types. They are:

A. Digital and analog
B. Bus and ring
C. Point-to-point and multi-point
D. Broadband and baseband
E. Direct and indirect

>> !
Answer: C

Layer 1, the physical layer, transmits unstructured raw bits over a physical medium such as the network cable. Point-to-point and multi-point are the two basic connection types. Broadband and baseband are two different techniques for transmitting encoded signals over cable. Baseband uses digital signals and broadband uses analog signals.


79. A group of protocols in an ordered logical hierarchy is best described as a definition for:

A. A model
B. A protocol suite
C. A protocol relationship
D. A protocol stack
E. The OSI reference model

>> !
Answer: D

In a network several protocols must work together so that data is prepared, transferred, received and acted upon. A protocol stack is several protocols whereby each layer specifies a different protocol for handling a subsystem function of the communication process.


80. What differences exist between computer systems with the 486DX and 486SX Intel processor? (Choose all that apply)

A. The 486SX uses a 16-bit address bus
B. In the 486SX, the NPU is permanently disabled
C. The 486SX can address 16 MB of RAM while the 486DX can address 4 GB of RAM
D. The 486DX uses a 32-bit address bus
E. If the 486SX owner requires NPU support, they must purchase the 80487SX

>> !
Answer: B & E

486 DX processors include a math co-processor not included with 486SX.


81. Each layer of the OSI Reference Model is to provide services and actions to the next ______.

A. Lower layer of the OSI Reference Model
B. Software application being activated
C. Higher layer of the OSI Reference Model
D. Protocol being used
E. Network interface card being accessed

>> !
Answer: C

The OSI Reference Model Layers are to provide services to the next higher layer and to shield those layers from the details of how the services are actually implemented. Each OSI layer does communicate with the levels below it as well as those above it.


82. Name a public domain protocol known for its routing capabilities and its heterogeneous communications environment.

A. TCP/IP
B. IPX/SPX
C. SMTP/FTP
D. AppleTalk
E. DECnet Phase V

>> !
Answer: A

The Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is a public domain protocol and the others were developed for their company's proprietary product.


83. Which four protocols work at the transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?

A. IPX
B. NWLink
C. SPX
D. TCP
E. ATP (AppleTalk)

>> !
Answer: B, C, D & E

The OSI Reference Model transport protocols consists of the TCP, SPX, ATP, NWLink, and NetBEUI. IPX is a network protocol.


84. Name three examples of the OSI Reference Model Network layer protocols.

A. IPX
B. TCP
C. SPX
D. NetBEUI
E. IP

>> !
Answer: A, D & E

The OSI Reference Model Network layer protocols are IP, IPX, NWLink, NetBEUI, and DDP. TCP and SPX protocols are part of the Transport layer of the OSI Model. Note that NWLink and NetBEUI are both transport and network protocols. DDP stands for Datagram Delivery Protocol, TCP stands for Transmission Control Protocol, IPX stands for Internetwork Packet Exchange, and IP stands for Internet Protocol.


85. The Transport layer will perform which three functions?

A. Message unpacking
B. Message acknowledgment
C. Message repackaging and re-assembly
D. Message name recognition
E. Message encryption

>> !
Answer: A, B & C

The OSI Reference Model Transport layer protocols provide the following functions Message unpacking, Message acknowledgment, and reassembling of messages. The Transport layer has the responsibility to interface between the Session and the Network layers of the OSI Reference Model. It will also perform the following functions:

-Message fragmentation and reassembling of long messages.
-Flow control, error handling and problem solving of packet reception.
-Ensures packet error free delivery, with no packet loss and reception of packets in sequence. Message encryption occurs at the Presentation layer.


86. The ______ layer of the OSI Reference Model packages raw bits received from the network into frames.

A. Physical
B. Network
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Presentation

>> !
Answer: C

The OSI Reference Model Data Link layer protocols receive data frames from the Network layer and pass them onto the Physical Layer. The Data Link layer will package the RAW bits received from the Physical layer into data frames and pass them onto the Network layer.


87. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes the Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)?

A. 802.3
B. 802.4
C. 802.5
D. 802.6
E. 802.7

>> !
Answer: D

The IEEE 802.6 category describes the Metropolitan Area Network.


88. What is the main function of a routable protocol?

A. To connect two computers together
B. To connect a computer and a server together
C. To provide a path for the packets to flow between nodes
D. To support multiple LAN to LAN communications among networks

>> !
Answer: D

Protocols that support multiple LAN-to-LAN communications are known as routable protocols.


89. In the Network environment what is a network driver considered to be?

A. A printer or other peripheral device
B. The hardware as represented by the NIC
C. The software that provides communication between the network adapter card and the redirector
D. The peripheral device itself
E. A PC card

>> !
Answer: C

The hardware devices require a means to communicate with the network operating system and the device driver provides an interface between the hardware and the operating system.


90. At which layer of the OSI Reference Model does a packet generation start?

A. Application
B. Presentation
C. Data Link
D. Transport
E. Session

>> !
Answer: A

Packet generation starts at the Application layer of the OSI Reference Model and descends through all seven layers and onto the topology.


91. The Presentation layer of the OSI Reference Model has which three responsibilities?

A. Protocol conversion and character set conversion
B. Flow control and error recovery
C. Data encryption, compression and translation
D. Name recognition and character security
E. Graphic command expansion

>> !
Answer: A, C & E

The Presentation layer is responsible for the following operations.

-Translating data into an intermediary format that will be commonly recognized.
-Responsible for protocol conversion, data translation, data encryption, character set conversion, and expanding graphical commands.
Name recognition is provided by the Session layer.


92. Which three OSI Reference Model layers provide error checks?

A. Physical
B. Presentation
C. Network
D. Data Link
E. Transport

>> !
Answer: A, D & E

Error checking is provided in the Physical, Data Link, and Transport OSI Reference Model layers.

-Physical Layer provides bit by bit error correction
-Transport Layer makes sure that all of the packets sent have arrived from the send client
-Data Link Layer provides the Cyclical Redundancy Check (CRC)


93. The Network layer of the OSI Model has which three responsibilities?

A. Message Addressing
B. Message Compression
C. Translating local addresses into physical addresses
D. Translating names into physical addresses
E. Controls the network data security

>> !
Answer: A, C & D

The Network OSI Reference Model layer provides message addressing, translating logical addresses into physical addresses, and translating names into physical addresses.


94. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the two types of 100-Mbps connections for Demand Priority Access LAN and the 100BaseVG-AnyLAN standard organizations?

A. 802.10
B. 802.9
C. 802.12
D. 802.7
E. 802.8

>> !
Answer: C

The IEEE 802.12 category describes the 100-Mbps 100BaseVG-AnyLAN standard.


95. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes the Integrated Voice/Data Networks category?

A. 802.9
B. 802.12
C. 802.11
D. 802.10
E. 802.8

>> !
Answer: A

The IEEE 802.9 category describes the Integrated Voice/Data Network standard.


96. The Data Link layer of the OSI Reference Model is the only layer that is divided into two parts. What are the two parts called?

A. Media Access Control sublayer
B. CSMA/CD sublayer
C. Logical Link Control sublayer
D. Linear Line Interface Control sublayer
E. Mainframe Access Standards sublayer

>> !
Answer: A & C

The Data Link layer of the OSI Reference Model is divided into two sublayers; the MAC Sublayer and the LLC Sublayer. or The two parts of the OSI Data Link Layer are the Logical Link Control and the Media Access Control.


97. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes the Logical Link Control category?

A. 802.1
B. 802.2
C. 802.3
D. 802.4
E. 802.5

>> !
Answer: B

The IEEE 802.2 Subcommittee describes the Logical Link Control category. IEEE 802 Category 802.2 defines the Data Link layer's Logical Link Control (LLC) section of the OSI Reference Model.


98. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the Token Bus LAN?

A. 802.3
B. 802.4
C. 802.5
D. 802.7
E. 802.9

>> !
Answer: B

The IEEE 802.4 Subcommittee describes the Token passing bus standard.


99. In networking terminology, what is a packet?

A. A data frame header
B. A package that is generated in one computer and passed to the hard disk in that computer
C. A unit of information containing data, its header formatting, and its header addressing
D. A unit of code in the Network Operating System core

>> !
Answer: C

Packets are the basic units of network communications. A packet is a unit of information containing data, header formatting, and header addressing.


100. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes network security?

A. 802.11
B. 802.3
C. 802.8
D. 802.10
E. 802.7

>> !
Answer: D

The IEEE 802.10 Subcommittee describes the Networking Security implementations.


101. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes wireless network capabilities?

A. 802.12
B. 802.8
C. 802.6
D. 802.9
E. 802.11

>> !
Answer: E

The IEEE 802.11 standard defines wireless networking technology implementations.


102. Which OSI Reference Model layer, called the network's translator, determines the exchange data format between networked computers?

A. Session
B. Presentation
C. Network
D. Data Link
E. Physical

>> !
Answer: B

The Presentation layer is layer 6 and is the layer that provides redirector functionality. The Presentation OSI Reference Model layer handles decryption, encryption, encoding, decoding, and data translation.


103. The IEEE 802 standard describes the Data Link layer as having two sublayers within the one standard OSI layer. What are these two sublayers?

A. Data Link I
B. Logical Link Control
C. Medium Control Area
D. Media Access Control
E. Project Linking Access

>> !
Answer: B & D

The Data Link layer OSI Reference Model is the only layer to be divided into two sub-categories; the MAC sublayer and the LLC sublayer.


104. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the Broadband Technical Advisory Group?

A. 802.7
B. 802.2
C. 802.3
D. 802.4
E. 802.5

>> !
Answer: A

The 802 specifications define the way network adapter cards access and transfer data over physical media, including connecting, maintaining and disconnecting network devices. The IEEE 802.7 Subcommittee describes the Broadband Technical Advisory Group.


105. Which of the OSI Reference Model layers assures error-free delivery of packets, divides and repackages long messages?

A. Application
B. Session
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Data Link

>> !
Answer: D

The Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model divides and repackages long messages? The Transport layer, (layer 4) provides flow control, error handling, packing and unpacking long messages and sends acknowledgements of receipt.


106. Which three network access methods use the contention method?

A. CSMA/CD
B. TOKEN PASSING
C. CSMA/CA
D. Demand Priority
E. Simultaneous transmission with bypass access

>> !
Answer: A, C & D

The Carrier-Sense Multiple Access / Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) method is used with the Contention Access Method on Ethernet bus topology. The CSMA/CA signals its intent to transmit before it actually transmits data, thus avoiding transmission collisions. Demand Priority allows implementation of a scheme where certain types of data will be given priority if there is contention.


107. Which OSI Reference Model layer has the responsibility to define how a cable is attached to the NIC?

A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Session
E. Application

>> !
Answer: A

The Physical layer of the OSI Reference Model has the responsibility to define how a cable is attached to the NIC.


108. The Network layer of the OSI Reference Model controls which three potential network traffic problems?

A. Packet switching
B. Routing
C. Network packet congestion with priority of service
D. Bridging
E. Transmission of unstructured raw bit streams

>> !
Answer: A, B & C

The Network layer of the OSI Reference Model controls packet switching, routing and network packet congestion with priority of service. The Physical layer transmits unstructured raw bits over a physical medium such as the network cable. The MAC sublayer of the Data Link layer handles bridging.


109. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) LAN (Ethernet)?

A. 802.1
B. 802.2
C. 802.3
D. 802.4
E. 802.5

>> !
Answer: C

IEEE protocols at the Physical layer are 802.3 (CSMA/CD LAN or Ethernet), 802.4 (token passing) and 802.5 (Token Ring). 802.4 is also referred to as a Token Bus LAN. The IEEE 802.1 category describes Internetworking.


110. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes a Token Ring LAN?

A. 802.2
B. 802.3
C. 802.4
D. 802.5
E. 802.6

>> !
Answer: D

The IEEE 802.5 Subcommittee describes the Token Ring. The IEEE 802 specifications define the way NICs access and transfer data over media, including connecting, maintaining and disconnecting network components.


111. What is the purpose of the layers of the OSI Reference Model? (Choose all that apply)

A. To provide services to the next higher layer
B. To shield the upper layers from the details of how the services are actually implemented
C. To provide an action that will prepare the data for delivery to the networked client
D. To provide an application address to the next lower level
E. To provide a transmission path only to the network server

>> !
Answer: A, B & C

The overall purpose of the OSI Reference layers is to provide services to the next layer, shield the upper layers from the details of how the services are actually implemented, and provide an action that will prepare the data for delivery to the networked client.


112. Which network access method uses ring topology?

A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. TOKEN PASSING
D. DEMAND PRIORITY
E. SIMULTANEOUS TRANSMISSION

>> !
Answer: C

Token Ring topology uses the token passing media access method. On a token ring network, only that computer in possession of the token, preventing contention as well as simultaneous transmissions.


113. What access method would you use to listen to the cable before transmitting the data?

A. CSMA/CA
B. CSMA/CD
C. TOKEN PASSING
D. POLLING
E. SENSING

>> !
Answer: B

The Carrier-Sense Multiple Access method is used with Collision Detection on the Ethernet Bus topology to listen for signals on the cable before trying to transmit. The only difference is that the CA avoids collisions by stations announcing that they are going to transmit. They still would wait until the cable is free before sending this announcement but do not listen before transmitting data.


114. Which network access method uses ring topology?

A. CSMA/CD
B. CSMA/CA
C. TOKEN PASSING
D. DEMAND PRIORITY
E. SIMULTANEOUS TRANSMISSION

>> !
Answer: C

Token Ring topology uses the token passing media access method. On a token ring network, only that computer in possession of the token, preventing contention as well as simultaneous transmissions.


115. Which two items are added at each of the OSI Reference Model layers to direct the data being sent or received to the next layer within the model?

A. Network adapter information
B. Header addressing
C. Data framing
D. Translation information
E. Additional formatting

>> !
Answer: B & E

Each layer of the OSI Reference Model will add their own header addressing information to the data being delivered across the network. Additional formatting or addressing must be added at each layer to ensure that the packet will be successfully transmitted across the network.


116. Choose four examples of the OSI Reference Model Application layer protocols?

A. NWLink
B. FTAM
C. X 400 and X 500
D. SMTP
E. FTP

>> !
Answer: B, C, D & E

The NWLink protocol works at the Network and Transport layers of the OSI Reference Model. The more popular application layer protocols are APPC, FTAM, X.400 (email), X.500 (directory services), SMTP (email), FTP (file transfer), and SNMP (network management).


117. What organization provides a functional outline for network communications and serves as a frame of reference for network discussions.

A. International Standards Organization (ISO) OSI Reference Model
B. American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
D. Institute for Operations Research and Management Science (INFORMS)

>> !
Answer: A

Primary among ISO's accomplishments is the widely accepted Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model.


118. You have been contracted to solve a printing problem at a law firm in Santa Clara, California. Name three steps that are recommended by Microsoft that you should perform.

A. Ask, "what has changed?"
B. Look at the server error log
C. Turn the printer OFF
D. Check for printer error messages and run printer self tests

>> !
Answer: A, B & D

The Microsoft Troubleshooter for network printing includes these steps. Turning the printer off and then on will not solve the printing problem.


119. Place the following remote printing process functions in the correct order needed to successfully print. 1. Print job is placed into the queue 2. Print server polls queue for job 3. Print server sends data to remote printer 4. Print server accepts data from queue 5. Print server checks if printer is ready.

A. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3
B. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
C. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3
D. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

>> !
Answer: C

For a print job to successfully complete, it must follow a specified order. Knowing this order helps in troubleshooting when things go wrong.


120. When printing to a shared printer, where is the print job sent?

A. The print job is sent to the print server
B. The print job is sent to the printer for immediate printing
C. The print job is sent to a print queue
D. The print job is sent to a file server's printing volume
E. The print job is sent to the queue on the print server

>> !
Answer: C

Print jobs sent to a network shared printer are sent to a print queue where they will wait their turn to be printed (depending on their relative priority).


121. Which two problems can the "out of paper" message indicate?

A. The printer is off-line
B. The printer is out of paper
C. The print driver can not keep up with the printer
D. There is a physical problem at the printer
E. The printer has insufficient buffer space

>> !
Answer: B & D

Most bi-directional printers will utilize the "out of paper" message to indicate not only empty paper trays, but other physical problems including paper jams.


122. Any disk subsystem architecture that combines two or more standard physical hard disks in a single logical disk to achieve data redundancy is called?

A. Disk Mirroring
B. Disk Duplexing
C. RAID
D. Drive Array Technology

>> !
Answer: C

Fault tolerance options are categorized in RAID levels. NT Server supports RAID levels 0,1 and 5. Level 0 is not fault-tolerant.


123. Name four internetwork design considerations.

A. Fault tolerance and management
B. Existing infrastructure
C. Workgroups and security
D. Company headquarters and manufacturing complex
E. Business objectives and future growth

>> !
Answer: A, B, C & E


124. The address of a specific upper layer process or protocol is usually referred to as a:

A. Network address
B. Service address
C. Logical device address
D. Physical application address
E. Transaction Identifier

>> !
Answer: B

The service address is the address of a specific upper layer process or protocol. Network devices must have a unique physical address (MAC address) but may have multiple service addresses.


125. What disk interface type is an extension of the ST-506 interface, known for high performance and large capacity disks?

A. IDE
B. EIDE
C. ESDI
D. SCSI
E. SCSI-II

>> !
Answer: C

ESDI is one of the disk types that can be used for disk striping. IDE and ESDI drives cannot do sector sparing--only SCSI can. ESDI is old technology and is not being used today. We have placed this question here for your information. ST-506 was one of the original standards for computer disks.


126. What are the two main types of groups used with Windows NT Server?

A. Local Groups
B. Global Groups
C. Special Groups
D. Built-in Groups
E. Operator Groups

>> !
Answer: A & B

The type of groups supplied with the Windows NT operating system are called local and global. Local groups function for the individual computer whereas Global groups function in the Domain environment.


127. Which of the five network management areas will be used to create and maintain user accounts?

A. Maintenance
B. Performance Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Resource Management
E. User Administration

>> !
Answer: E

Administration will control the creating and maintaining of user accounts and resources.


128. Which of the five network management areas will be used to support and implement the network shared hard drives and shared printers?

A. Maintenance
B. Performance Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Resource Management

>> !
Answer: D

Within the five network management areas, the resource management will be used to support existing resources and to implement any new resources to your network. With a resource manager, you will be able to implement and support the network resources.


129. Which statements are true regarding the user's password? (Choose all that apply)

A. Passwords are case sensitive
B. Passwords recognize case but are not case sensitive
C. User passwords should be unique
D. Maximum password length is 14 characters
E. Minimum password length is 256 characters

>> !
Answer: A, C & D

Passwords within the Windows NT environment are case sensitive and limited to 14 characters but can be left blank, and should be unique for each user.


130. Your company of 10 clients is trying to decide which type of network to implement, peer-to-peer or server-based. What is most often given as the primary reason for a server-based network?

A. Centralized Backup
B. Sharing resources
C. Number of users
D. Implementation of Security
E. Data Redundancy

>> !
Answer: D

Although used for many reasons, centralized security is mission critical in many networking environments.