Essentials1. Termination of the bus using newer SCSI disk and controller combinations is simple because new technology uses what? A. The elimination of the need to terminate B. Active termination C. Passive termination D. Newer SCSI drives use a Master/Slave relationship
2. Over the years, it has been documented that the majority of SCSI hard disk problems are caused by which of the following? A. Using substandard cables B. POST configuration errors C. Improper termination D. SCSI disk head problems E. Wrong ID settings
3. While driving to a customer's site, you are thinking of the possible causes of their symptoms. The insurance agent has had intermittent performance and other trouble from the new SCSI drives installed last week in the NT 4.0 server. Which three items could be the cause of this? A. Possible bad cable B. ESD C. SCSI termination D. SCSI IDs E. POST results
4. SCSI disk performance is erratic on the new NT 4.0 EISA server. You suspect that the SCSI IDs are not properly set. Normally, how should they be set? (Choose all that apply) A. HBA set for 7 B. Devices other than the HBA; 0 to 6 for highest to lowest priority C. Devices other than the HBA; 6 to 0 for highest to lowest priority D. HBA set for 0 E. Devices other than the HBA; 1 to 7 for highest to lowest priority
5. Name three characteristics of SCSI and SCSI-II. A. SCSI is an ANSI standard B. Drives are limited to 528 MB of capacity C. Eight devices, including the controller, may be installed on the bus D. They have fast throughput E. The interface is an extension of the ST-506 interface
6. What points should you keep in mind when working with SCSI hard disk cables? (Choose all that apply) A. SCSI can use 50 or 68 pin cables B. Pin 1 has a colored stripe C. To accommodate all of the devices, the bus length may exceed 25 feet D. Maximum distance between connectors is 18 inches E. The twist in the cable is close to pin 1
7. You have just completed the installation of the SCSI HBA and disk drives in a PC that will be an NT 4.0 server. When you powered on the system the PC "locked up". The PC booted with a floppy before the SCSI install. What could be the cause of this problem? (Choose all that apply) A. IRQ conflict B. I/O conflict C. SCSI ID of HBA conflicting with a hard drive D. DMA conflict E. Base Memory conflict
8. What drive type do you enter in CMOS for SCSI hard drives? (Choose all that apply) A. Drive type 47 B. Drive type 0 C. Closest drive type that matches the number of Cylinders, Heads and Sectors D. Not Installed E. Drive type 1
9. What steps must you perform to physically install two IDE hard disks into a PC? (Choose all that apply) A. Set the disk drive types in CMOS B. Configure and install the drives C. Set the Jumper on the hard disk to master or slave D. Set the drive ID to 0 - 6, depending on desired priority E. Attach cable
10. Two new SCSI drives will be added to an existing NT 4.0 server. There are no empty drive bays in the PC so the drives will have to be installed in an external cabinet. What cable precautions must be observed? (Choose all that apply) A. Because of the possible amount of external devices, the SCSI bus may exceed 25 feet B. A twenty-five pin cable must be used to connect external devices to the HBA C. Reduce crosstalk and match impedance by purchasing a SCSI approved external cable D. Pay attention to the type of connectors each system component requires
11. The disk drive subsystem of a newly updated NT 4.0 server has been identified as a bottleneck area. You have been contracted to replace the IDE drives with two SCSI drives. The server has an old 486DX motherboard with no SCSI support built-in. What steps will need to be completed? (Choose all that apply) A. Verify a good, up-to-date backup exists B. Configure the disks in a master/slave relationship C. Install a SCSI interface board in one of the system's expansion slots D. Configure the disk IDs on each hard drive E. Configure the SCSI controller to support TCP/IP
12. When installing and configuring IDE hard disk drives in a PC system, what are the possible configuration modes that can be set on the IDE controllers? A. Single drive only B. Primary C. Master D. Secondary E. Slave
13. What points should you keep in mind when working with IDE hard disk cables? (Choose all that apply) A. Pin one has a colored stripe B. A forty-pin cable must be used C. The cable twist must be near pin one D. Cable may not exceed eighteen inches in length E. Distance between connectors on the cable may not exceed eighteen inches
14. What IDE hard disk parameters can be set in the computer's CMOS? (Choose all that apply) A. Number of cylinders B. Number of heads C. Capacity in Mbytes D. Write pre-compensation E. Drive ID
15. What rules should you follow when entering IDE drive parameters into CMOS? (Choose all that apply) A. Do not choose more cylinders than the drive physically has B. Choose the type with the highest capacity in MB, not exceeding the physical capacity C. Choose the number of logical heads D. Use type 47 if the BIOS does not have an exact drive type match, or one that is acceptable E. Exceeding the physical number of C-H-S will ensure all the full drive will be utilized
16. If you define your drive type in CMOS with "User Defined," what precaution should you take? A. Record the type and parameters on a label and place it on the hard drive B. Disable the auto detect feature C. Choose the highest number of logical heads D. Enable the auto detect feature
17. You have completed the physical installation of two new IDE hard disks in a computer. What are your next steps? (Choose all that apply) A. Perform a high level format B. Edit the FAT table C. Low level format the drive D. Partition the disk E. Backup the disks
18. List three items that describe the network device interface specification (NDIS)? A. An interface between the MAC sublayer and protocol drivers B. Creates a flexible environment for data exchange C. Defines the software interface used by protocol drivers to communicate with the network adapter card D. Operates at the Network layer E. Manages traffic routing and control
19. Select the items that describe network analyzers. (Choose all that apply) A. They are also called Protocol Analyzers B. Use the /R format command so the data will be recoverable if anything goes wrong C. They function in real-time network traffic analysis D. Perform packet capture, decoding and transmission functions E. Create documentation on currently installed cabling, software, file servers, clients, BIOS and interface cards
20. You are installing a 1.6-Gbyte IDE hard drive in a Pentium Workstation. You search through a box of drive cables and find many types. How many pins should the correct cable have? A. 20 B. 25 C. 34 D. 40 E. 50
21. Name two ways of creating the DOS boot sector on a hard drive. A. FORMAT command B. FDISK command C. This is created when performing a low-level format D. With the computer's SETUP utility E. By performing a SYS command
22. Which drive type uses a high-speed parallel interface standardized by ANSI? A. ST-506 B. ESDI C. IDE D. EIDE E. SCSI
23. What is the function of a Remote Boot PROM? A. To establish communication with the server and return the appropriate boot information to the Workstation B. Provides a virtual floppy disk for the Workstation C. To store a disk image file, from which the Workstation will boot D. To establish communication with the server and execute DOSGEN E. Provides a RAM disk for the Workstation
24. Network Interface card PROMs provide network security because... A. they have wireless networking B. they allow remote-boot diskless startup C. they block access to the server D. they block access to the Workstation
25. A digital signal is best described as: A. Having two states B. Undergoing constant change C. A signal where phase is an important consideration D. Not easily used to represent binary numbers E. Limited to only two signal levels
26. What are the methods that describe how a digital signal may represent data? A. FSK and ASK B. PSK and FSK C. Time and amplitude D. Current state and state transition E. Token passing and contention
27. Signals that rely on a continuously variable state of waves are: A. Digital B. Analog C. Variable D. Asynchronous E. Synchronous
28. Two common ways to have two data flow paths for broadband transmission are: A. Mid-split broadband configuration B. Set the parameters for frequency, cycles per second, and amplitude C. Use a dual-cable configuration D. Use repeaters E. Use amplifiers
29. A baseband system is best described as: A. A system which uses the entire capacity of the medium for a signal B. A system which supports multiple signals at the same time on the medium C. Usually using analog signals D. Allowing multiple frequencies when used in full duplex
30. A bandwidth use method that allows several frequencies to occupy a single medium is: A. Baseband B. Digital baseband C. Broadband D. Filtered media E. Synchronous baseband
31. What type of cable would you recommend a University client use if they were going to connect two buildings on different campuses? The campuses are approximately 1.2 miles apart, and high bandwidth is a must. A. STP B. UTP C. Coax D. RG11 E. Fiber-optic
32. Which of the following accurately describes fiber-optic cable? (Choose all that apply) A. Capable of connecting systems that are a mile apart B. Absolutely immune to EMI C. Perfect for environments where network administrators need simple components for a new LAN D. Distance between hub and node(s) must be between 0.5 meters and 100 meters E. Slightly more cost effective than 10baseT
33. You are using Thinnet cable for a 25-user network and have employed a new vendor to add four new computers. After the vendor add the computers on Friday evening and left for a long weekend you find out that nobody can access the server. You quickly write this proposed solution for overtime on Saturday: Check the network cable that was added for the proper type. Correct open connections and cable breaks with a network analyzer. Check total network cable lengths against maximums specified for the network type and check for properly installed terminators. After checking all items in the proposed solution, the network operates normally. Which three options could have caused the problem? A. One cable segment was frayed B. One cable segment exceeded 328 feet by a few feet C. One of the cable segments used RG 62/U cable while all the others used RG 58A/U D. One 307 foot cable segment had a BNC barrel connector in the middle of it E. One of the cable connections was loose
34. Thinnet cable can carry a signal up to approximately what distance? A. 500 meters (about 1,640 feet) B. 185 meters (about 607 feet) C. 100 meters (about 328 feet) D. 2 kilometers (about 6,562 feet)
35. Thicknet cable carries a signal up to approximately what distance? A. 500 meters (about 1,640 feet) B. 185 meters (about 607 feet) C. 100 meters (about 328 feet) D. 2 kilometers (about 6,562 feet)
36. UTP cable can carry a signal up to approximately what distance? A. 500 meters (about 1,640 feet) B. 185 meters (about 607 feet) C. 100 meters (about 328 feet) D. 2 kilometers (about 6,562 feet)
37. Thinnet is in the RG-58 family. What would its impedance be in ohms? A. 25 B. 50 C. 100 D. 150
38. Thicknet is connected to a Network adapter card with which type of connector? A. DB-25 B. AUI C. BNC D. RG-45 E. RG-11
39. True or False? Without a BNC terminator at each end of the bus to absorb stray signals, a bus network will not function. A. True B. False
40. How far can Thicknet carry a signal? A. 1500 feet B. 1550 feet C. 1640 feet D. 1650 feet E. 1600 feet
41. Ethernet 10Base2 and 10Base5 use ______ -ohm terminators. A. 93 B. 75 C. 125 D. 300 E. 50
42. How can Thicknet and Thinnet be used together? (Choose all that apply) A. Thicknet is good for backbones and Thinnet is used for branch segments B. Thicknet has a larger copper core than Thinnet and can carry signals much farther C. Transceivers attach to the Thicknet cable and the transceiver cable's AUI connector plugs into a repeater D. Branching segments of Thinnet plug into the repeater and connect the computers to the network E. Branching segments of Thinnet plug into the transceiver and connect computers to the network
43. What is the length of a 10BaseFL segment? A. 1000 meters B. 1640 meters C. 1640 feet D. 2000 feet E. 2000 meters
44. Which OSI Reference Model layer is used to establish end-to-end communications between computers? A. Application B. Presentation C. Transport D. Session E. Physical
45. You are installing an SMC Ethercard Plus ELITE16T NIC into a computer with the following configuration: IRQ 10, PORT 300, MEM CC00. To what area of memory does the "MEM CC00" refer? A. Conventional B. Upper C. High D. Expanded E. Extended
46. Where can Ethernet transceiver devices be located? (Choose all that apply) A. Built into the NIC B. The transceiver function is written into the MLID driver C. Ethernet does not use transceivers D. External to the NIC
47. What are the two most common network adapter problems? A. Base I/O Port addresses B. IRQ conflicts C. Base Memory addresses D. Transceiver settings
48. To test new cables for shorts which instrument would you use? A. A voltmeter B. An ohmmeter C. A Hewlett-Packard D. An RG-58A/U
49. Which two selections identify a possible CPU or Bus I/O bottleneck in a Microsoft NT 4.0 server? A. 386 20-MHz motherboard with 64 MB RAM B. BUS Master Disk Controller C. I/O devices and the CPU access memory simultaneously D. PCI disk controller E. ISA motherboard
50. What type of network topology will cause all computers on a network to go down if only one computer cable goes bad and becomes disconnected from the network? A. Star B. Hub C. Bus D. Ring
51. In your latest network installation, you have chosen to use a hub. What are three characteristics of hubs? A. Hubs can be used for network gateways B. Hubs can be either active or passive C. Hybrid hubs can use different cable types D. Hubs facilitate network troubleshooting
52. What transmission technique uses amplifiers for regeneration of analog signals? A. Analog B. Baseband C. Broadband D. Digital
53. What type of connector is used to connect twisted-pair cable to a network adapter card? A. UTP-45 B. RJ-11 C. RJ-45 D. BNC-T
54. Your office location is being remodeled. Your supervisor tells you that this is an ideal time to finally install a network since they are tearing out the ceiling and putting in a false, dropped overhead ceiling with lift-out, sound-proof panels. She directs you to purchase the best coaxial cable for the job and to string it overhead and between the walls during the remodeling process. What cable do you purchase? A. PVC grade B. BNC grade C. Plenum grade D. Wall grade
55. To finish designing your network, you must decide what adapter cards to use. To aid your decision, what three statements about the network cards that you will use are correct? A. Data is held temporarily in the network adapter card transceiver B. Sending adapter cards must have the same transmission speeds as receiving adapter cards C. Each network card must have a unique address D. Network adapter cards convert parallel data to serial data
56. What type of wireless transmission would you configure for transferring data from one computer to another rather than communicate among several computers? A. Infrared B. Point-to-Point C. Bridge D. Transceiver
57. What is the specification for thin Ethernet cable? A. Category 5 B. RG-59, 75 Ohm C. RG-58, 50 Ohm D. Category 3 E. RG-8, 50 Ohm
58. What bus architecture would you use for your network computers that will be running CAD/CAM and photographic software applications? A. EISA B. MCA C. PCI D. VL-Bus
59. What cable type is most commonly used for "thin Ethernet"? A. RG-59, 75 OHM B. RG-58, 50 OHM C. Category 5 D. RG-62, 93 OHM
60. You have just installed a Microsoft NT 4.0 Server as the third server at a large corporation headquarters but cannot log on to the domain. You are able to work only on your server and cannot see any other servers within the domain. What is a likely cause of the problem? A. An IRQ conflict B. A DMA conflict C. A Base Memory conflict D. A Hard disk address conflict
61. You have just installed a NE2000 Ethernet network adapter card in a workstation with the following configuration: IRQ=3, I/O=360, MEM=CC000. What type of problem could result from this installation? A. No problem, the PC is configured correctly B. A potential IRQ conflict with COM1 C. A potential IRQ conflict with COM2 D. Printing to LPT1 will not happen when the LAN drivers are loaded
62. What is the function of a Remote Boot PROM? A. To establish communication with the server and return the appropriate boot information to the workstation B. Provides a virtual floppy disk for the workstation C. To store a disk image file, from which the workstation will boot D. To establish communication with the server and execute DOSGEN
63. How do Network Interface card PROMs provide network security? A. They have wireless networking B. They allow remote-boot diskless startup C. They block access to the server D. They block access to the workstation
64. Signals that rely on a continuously variable state of waves are: A. Digital B. Analog C. Variable D. Asynchronous
65. You are establishing a network and need to consider ways to have two data flow paths for broadband transmission. What are two common ways to have two data flow paths for broadband transmission? A. Use a dual-cable configuration B. Set the parameters for frequency, cycles per second, and amplitude C. Use repeaters D. Use a mid-split configuration
66. What type of cable would you recommend that a corporate client should use if they were going to connect two buildings on different sites together? The sites are approximately 1.2 miles apart, and high bandwidth is a must. A. STP B. UTP C. Coax D. Fiber
67. When installing the Ethernet NIC into a PC, what potential conflicts may already exist? A. COM1 uses IRQ 3 B. COM2 uses IRQ 4 C. COM2 uses IRQ 3 D. COM1 uses IRQ 4
68. Which device converts an Ethernet signal on the wire into a form the PC can recognize and use? A. AUI B. DIX C. Transceiver D. CSMA/CA
69. What kind of terminator must be used on ethernet 10Base2 and 10Base5 networks? A. 93 ohm B. 75 ohm C. 50 ohm D. 100 ohm
70. A disk channel includes which four components? A. HBA B. Controller C. Storage Devices D. Motherboard E. Cabling
71. What are some advantages of using Remote Boot workstations? (Choose all that apply) A. Phase B. Security C. Cost D. Reduced risk of viruses E. Users do not need to handle floppy disks
72. What device drivers loaded in the CONFIG.SYS file enable the use of memory above 640 KB? (Choose all that apply) A. DEVICE=C:\DOS\HIMEM SYS B. DEVICE=C:\DOS\EMM386 SYS C. DOS=HIGH,UBM D. DEVICEHIGH=C:\DOS\HIMEM SYS E. DEVICE=C:\DOS\EMM386 EXE NOEMS
73. When discussing CPU-detected errors that generate abend messages, one must understand that the processor can interrupt program execution by issuing an interrupt or an exception. Which four selections define or describe the issued interrupt or exception? A. An interrupt is generated by an external device that requires attention B. The processor responding to a condition it detected while executing an instruction causes an exception C. Faults, traps, or aborts are classifications of exceptions D. An exception is a serious error because it indicates some degree of memory corruption E. EMIs are types of exceptions related to abends
74. Which selections are characteristics of NDIS? (Choose all that apply) A. Permits single card to support multiple protocol drivers B. Supports multiple adapter cards C. Any transport protocol can talk to any network adapter card D. Allows communication between MAC and transport protocol drivers at the transport and Session layer E. The Protocol and MAC drivers initially establish communication through binding
75. Which statements concerning ODI are correct? (Choose all that apply) A. The ODI stack has two parts B. One part of the ODI stack is the MLID C. Allows OSPF to calculate routes D. One part of the ODI stack is the LSL E. Provides an interface to the transport protocols
76. True or False? NetBEUI is a transport protocol that does not support routing. A. True B. False
77. Which three selections describe NWLink? A. Does not support routing B. Microsoft's version of IPX/SPX C. A transport protocol D. NWLink IPX determines packet type during setup E. The IPX protocol is not tied to a particular frame type
78. At the Physical layer, there are two basic connection types. They are: A. Digital and analog B. Bus and ring C. Point-to-point and multi-point D. Broadband and baseband E. Direct and indirect
79. A group of protocols in an ordered logical hierarchy is best described as a definition for: A. A model B. A protocol suite C. A protocol relationship D. A protocol stack E. The OSI reference model
80. What differences exist between computer systems with the 486DX and 486SX Intel processor? (Choose all that apply) A. The 486SX uses a 16-bit address bus B. In the 486SX, the NPU is permanently disabled C. The 486SX can address 16 MB of RAM while the 486DX can address 4 GB of RAM D. The 486DX uses a 32-bit address bus E. If the 486SX owner requires NPU support, they must purchase the 80487SX
81. Each layer of the OSI Reference Model is to provide services and actions to the next ______. A. Lower layer of the OSI Reference Model B. Software application being activated C. Higher layer of the OSI Reference Model D. Protocol being used E. Network interface card being accessed
82. Name a public domain protocol known for its routing capabilities and its heterogeneous communications environment. A. TCP/IP B. IPX/SPX C. SMTP/FTP D. AppleTalk E. DECnet Phase V
83. Which four protocols work at the transport layer of the OSI Reference Model? A. IPX B. NWLink C. SPX D. TCP E. ATP (AppleTalk)
84. Name three examples of the OSI Reference Model Network layer protocols. A. IPX B. TCP C. SPX D. NetBEUI E. IP
85. The Transport layer will perform which three functions? A. Message unpacking B. Message acknowledgment C. Message repackaging and re-assembly D. Message name recognition E. Message encryption
86. The ______ layer of the OSI Reference Model packages raw bits received from the network into frames. A. Physical B. Network C. Data Link D. Transport E. Presentation
87. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes the Metropolitan Area Network (MAN)? A. 802.3 B. 802.4 C. 802.5 D. 802.6 E. 802.7
88. What is the main function of a routable protocol? A. To connect two computers together B. To connect a computer and a server together C. To provide a path for the packets to flow between nodes D. To support multiple LAN to LAN communications among networks
89. In the Network environment what is a network driver considered to be? A. A printer or other peripheral device B. The hardware as represented by the NIC C. The software that provides communication between the network adapter card and the redirector D. The peripheral device itself E. A PC card
90. At which layer of the OSI Reference Model does a packet generation start? A. Application B. Presentation C. Data Link D. Transport E. Session
91. The Presentation layer of the OSI Reference Model has which three responsibilities? A. Protocol conversion and character set conversion B. Flow control and error recovery C. Data encryption, compression and translation D. Name recognition and character security E. Graphic command expansion
92. Which three OSI Reference Model layers provide error checks? A. Physical B. Presentation C. Network D. Data Link E. Transport
93. The Network layer of the OSI Model has which three responsibilities? A. Message Addressing B. Message Compression C. Translating local addresses into physical addresses D. Translating names into physical addresses E. Controls the network data security
94. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the two types of 100-Mbps connections for Demand Priority Access LAN and the 100BaseVG-AnyLAN standard organizations? A. 802.10 B. 802.9 C. 802.12 D. 802.7 E. 802.8
95. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes the Integrated Voice/Data Networks category? A. 802.9 B. 802.12 C. 802.11 D. 802.10 E. 802.8
96. The Data Link layer of the OSI Reference Model is the only layer that is divided into two parts. What are the two parts called? A. Media Access Control sublayer B. CSMA/CD sublayer C. Logical Link Control sublayer D. Linear Line Interface Control sublayer E. Mainframe Access Standards sublayer
97. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes the Logical Link Control category? A. 802.1 B. 802.2 C. 802.3 D. 802.4 E. 802.5
98. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the Token Bus LAN? A. 802.3 B. 802.4 C. 802.5 D. 802.7 E. 802.9
99. In networking terminology, what is a packet? A. A data frame header B. A package that is generated in one computer and passed to the hard disk in that computer C. A unit of information containing data, its header formatting, and its header addressing D. A unit of code in the Network Operating System core
100. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes network security? A. 802.11 B. 802.3 C. 802.8 D. 802.10 E. 802.7
101. Which of the 802 committees LAN standards describes wireless network capabilities? A. 802.12 B. 802.8 C. 802.6 D. 802.9 E. 802.11
102. Which OSI Reference Model layer, called the network's translator, determines the exchange data format between networked computers? A. Session B. Presentation C. Network D. Data Link E. Physical
103. The IEEE 802 standard describes the Data Link layer as having two sublayers within the one standard OSI layer. What are these two sublayers? A. Data Link I B. Logical Link Control C. Medium Control Area D. Media Access Control E. Project Linking Access
104. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the Broadband Technical Advisory Group? A. 802.7 B. 802.2 C. 802.3 D. 802.4 E. 802.5
105. Which of the OSI Reference Model layers assures error-free delivery of packets, divides and repackages long messages? A. Application B. Session C. Network D. Transport E. Data Link
106. Which three network access methods use the contention method? A. CSMA/CD B. TOKEN PASSING C. CSMA/CA D. Demand Priority E. Simultaneous transmission with bypass access
107. Which OSI Reference Model layer has the responsibility to define how a cable is attached to the NIC? A. Physical B. Data Link C. Network D. Session E. Application
108. The Network layer of the OSI Reference Model controls which three potential network traffic problems? A. Packet switching B. Routing C. Network packet congestion with priority of service D. Bridging E. Transmission of unstructured raw bit streams
109. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes the Carrier-Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) LAN (Ethernet)? A. 802.1 B. 802.2 C. 802.3 D. 802.4 E. 802.5
110. Which of the 802 committee's LAN standards describes a Token Ring LAN? A. 802.2 B. 802.3 C. 802.4 D. 802.5 E. 802.6
111. What is the purpose of the layers of the OSI Reference Model? (Choose all that apply) A. To provide services to the next higher layer B. To shield the upper layers from the details of how the services are actually implemented C. To provide an action that will prepare the data for delivery to the networked client D. To provide an application address to the next lower level E. To provide a transmission path only to the network server
112. Which network access method uses ring topology? A. CSMA/CD B. CSMA/CA C. TOKEN PASSING D. DEMAND PRIORITY E. SIMULTANEOUS TRANSMISSION
113. What access method would you use to listen to the cable before transmitting the data? A. CSMA/CA B. CSMA/CD C. TOKEN PASSING D. POLLING E. SENSING
114. Which network access method uses ring topology? A. CSMA/CD B. CSMA/CA C. TOKEN PASSING D. DEMAND PRIORITY E. SIMULTANEOUS TRANSMISSION
115. Which two items are added at each of the OSI Reference Model layers to direct the data being sent or received to the next layer within the model? A. Network adapter information B. Header addressing C. Data framing D. Translation information E. Additional formatting
116. Choose four examples of the OSI Reference Model Application layer protocols? A. NWLink B. FTAM C. X 400 and X 500 D. SMTP E. FTP
117. What organization provides a functional outline for network communications and serves as a frame of reference for network discussions. A. International Standards Organization (ISO) OSI Reference Model B. American National Standards Institute (ANSI) C. Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) D. Institute for Operations Research and Management Science (INFORMS)
118. You have been contracted to solve a printing problem at a law firm in Santa Clara, California. Name three steps that are recommended by Microsoft that you should perform. A. Ask, "what has changed?" B. Look at the server error log C. Turn the printer OFF D. Check for printer error messages and run printer self tests
119. Place the following remote printing process functions in the correct order needed to successfully print. 1. Print job is placed into the queue 2. Print server polls queue for job 3. Print server sends data to remote printer 4. Print server accepts data from queue 5. Print server checks if printer is ready. A. 1, 5, 2, 4, 3 B. 2, 5, 1, 4, 3 C. 1, 2, 5, 4, 3 D. 5, 2, 1, 3, 4
120. When printing to a shared printer, where is the print job sent? A. The print job is sent to the print server B. The print job is sent to the printer for immediate printing C. The print job is sent to a print queue D. The print job is sent to a file server's printing volume E. The print job is sent to the queue on the print server
121. Which two problems can the "out of paper" message indicate? A. The printer is off-line B. The printer is out of paper C. The print driver can not keep up with the printer D. There is a physical problem at the printer E. The printer has insufficient buffer space
122. Any disk subsystem architecture that combines two or more standard physical hard disks in a single logical disk to achieve data redundancy is called? A. Disk Mirroring B. Disk Duplexing C. RAID D. Drive Array Technology
123. Name four internetwork design considerations. A. Fault tolerance and management B. Existing infrastructure C. Workgroups and security D. Company headquarters and manufacturing complex E. Business objectives and future growth
124. The address of a specific upper layer process or protocol is usually referred to as a: A. Network address B. Service address C. Logical device address D. Physical application address E. Transaction Identifier
125. What disk interface type is an extension of the ST-506 interface, known for high performance and large capacity disks? A. IDE B. EIDE C. ESDI D. SCSI E. SCSI-II
126. What are the two main types of groups used with Windows NT Server? A. Local Groups B. Global Groups C. Special Groups D. Built-in Groups E. Operator Groups
127. Which of the five network management areas will be used to create and maintain user accounts? A. Maintenance B. Performance Management C. Configuration Management D. Resource Management E. User Administration
128. Which of the five network management areas will be used to support and implement the network shared hard drives and shared printers? A. Maintenance B. Performance Management C. Configuration Management D. Resource Management
129. Which statements are true regarding the user's password? (Choose all that apply) A. Passwords are case sensitive B. Passwords recognize case but are not case sensitive C. User passwords should be unique D. Maximum password length is 14 characters E. Minimum password length is 256 characters
130. Your company of 10 clients is trying to decide which type of network to implement, peer-to-peer or server-based. What is most often given as the primary reason for a server-based network? A. Centralized Backup B. Sharing resources C. Number of users D. Implementation of Security E. Data Redundancy
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