Certified Internetwork Troubleshooting


1. Which switch processor uses system software that governs the general control of the hardware, its configuration and diagnostic routines?

A. NCP
B. NMP
C. MCP
D. LCP

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Answer: B

NMP - Network Management Processor: governs the general control of the hardware, its configuration and diagnostic routines.


2. Which Catalyst 5000 component is similar to a learning bridge?

A. LTL
B. CBL
C. Arbiter
D. EARL

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Answer: D

EARL -Enhanced Address Recognition Logic: similar to the function of a learning bridge or content addressable memory, responsible for maintaining the contents of the MAC information.


3. Which of the following switches has full supervisor redundancy with a Supervisor II installed?

A. Catalyst 5000
B. Catalyst 5007
C. Catalyst 5500
D. Catalyst 5090

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Answer: C

Only the Catalyst 5500 has full supervisor redundancy with a Supervisor II installed. Supervisor resilience is available only on the 13-slot chassis of the Catalyst 5500 switch. No software commands are needed to enable this functionality. You can use the Catalyst 5500 series switch to create a high-speed, fault-tolerant environment that supports mission-critical applications by using a second supervisor module in the chassis of your switch. The second supervisor module takes over in case of the failure of the active supervisor module. When you use two supervisor modules in the chassis to provide redundancy, the first supervisor module to come up is considered the active module. The second supervisor module remains in standby mode.
All network management functions, such as Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP), command-line interface (CLI) console, Telnet, spanning tree, Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), and virtual LAN (VLAN) Trunk Protocol (VTP) take place on the active supervisor module. The Ethernet ports on the standby supervisor module are inactive in the same way that enabled ports on disabled modules are inactive. The console port on the standby supervisor module is also inactive. The redundant supervisor modules operate in the first two slots of the 13-slot chassis. The supervisor modules are hot-swappable, and in the redundant configuration, the system continues to operate with the same configuration after switching over to the redundant supervisor.


4. Which ASIC is on the Supervisor III engine and is a gigabit bridge used to create the crossbar fabric?

A. Phoenix
B. Sage
C. Saint
D. Samba

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Answer: A

PHOENIX ASIC-A gate array ASIC used to connect the switching buses. Available on SUP III. Supports 3.6Gbps crossbar fabric, layer 3 switching support with EARL II, CISCO IOS support.


5. Identify two true statements about the Catalyst 5500 series switches.

A. The Catalyst 5500 has a 3.6-Gbps media-independent switch fabric and a 5-Gbps cell-switch fabric.
B. The Catalyst will load balance between supervisor boards, assuming both boards are the same model.
C. The backplane provides the connection between power supplies, Supervisor Engine II, interface modules, and backbone module.
D. FDDI and ATM is available with a Supervisor III installed If you have a supervisor III installed in port 2, it will be used instead of the integrated supervisor II in slot 1.

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Answer: A & C

In addition to the correct answers above you should also be aware that the Catalyst 5550 3.6-Gbps media-independent fabric supports Ethernet, Fast Ethernet, FDDI/CDDI, ATM LAN Emulation, and RSM modules. In addition the 5-Gbps cell-based fabric supports an ATM switch processor (ASP) module and ATM port adapter modules (PAMS). The Cisco Catalyst 5000 series route switch module builds upon the Route Switch Processor (RSP) featured in Cisco's 7500 routing platform. The route switch module provides high-performance multilayer switching and routing services between switched Virtual LANs (VLANs), emulated LANs (ELANs) within an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) fabric, or across mixed media via an optional Versatile Interface Processor (VIP) and port adapters.


6. Which are the two primary functions of the MCP processor?

A. Bus Arbitration
B. Communicating with LCP ASIC
C. Communicating with NMP ASIC
D. System Configuration
E. Configuration of local ports

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Answer: B & C

MCP-Master Control Processor. The primary function of the MCP is to communicate information between the NMP and the line module communication processors (LCPs) distributed on the Catalyst 5000 line modules. This occurs across the management bus, which is a serial bus at 761 kbps. Functions of the MCP include: Test and configuration of local ports, Control local ports using local target logic (LTL) and color blocking logic (CBL), Local diagnostics of onboard RAM, SAINT, ASICs, LTL and CBL, Support download of run-time code.


7. Which ASIC is found on each line module and is used to determine which traffic should be send to the switching bus?

A. CBL
B. LTL
C. SAGE
D. EARL

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Answer: B

LTL-Local Target Logic. Used to select which port or ports on the switching bus are to receive the current packet on the bus. This is on each line module. Reference: Cisco Official Documentation CD/ Multi-Layer LAN Switches Objective: Use proven problem isolation techniques to list the symptoms of Catalyst 5000 â and VLAN problems on switched Ethernet networks.


8. Which ASIC is responsible for blocking VLAN traffic going or coming from a port?

A. LTL
B. SAGE
C. EARL
D. CBL
E. NMP

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Answer: D

CBL-Color Blocking Logic. Blocks VLAN traffic going out of a port or coming in from a port, it also assists spanning tree in blocking ports to prevent loops.


9. Which of the following ASIC's are responsible for participating in the Spanning Tree Algorithm? (Choose all that apply)

A. MCP
B. NMP
C. CBL
D. SAGE

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Answer: B & C

CBL-Color Blocking Logic. Blocks VLAN traffic going out of a port or coming in from a port, it also assists spanning tree in blocking ports to prevent loops. NMP-Network Management Processor. The NMP uses system software that governs the control of the hardware, its configuration, and diagnostics routines, including the loading of run time code to the line modules. The NMP performs the following: System Control, System Configuration, System Diagnostics, Spanning Tree Per VLAN, Network Management CLI.


10. Which Catalyst 5000 switch components is similar to the function of a learning bridge or content addressable memory?

A. LTL
B. CBL
C. ARBITER
D. EARL

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Answer: D


11. Which of the following ASIC is responsible for handling Ethernet traffic?

A. SAGE
B. SAINT
C. SAMBA
D. SAP

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Answer: B

SAINT- Synergy Advanced Interface and Network Termination. Used to perform encapsulation of the Ethernet frames before they cross the switching bus. Each dedicated Ethernet and Fast Ethernet port has its own SAINT ASIC and 192 KB of dedicated frame buffer. The only line module that are not dedicated is the group switching module, this uses four SAINTs.


12. Which ASIC on both line modules and the Supervisor engine provides arbitration to the switching bus among ports and among lines?

A. SAGE
B. SAINT
C. SAMBA
D. PHOENIX

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Answer: C

SAMBA-Synergy Advanced Multipurpose Bus Arbiter. Located on both the Supervisor and Line Modules. Provides arbitration to the switching bus. Works in either master or slave mode. SAMBA in master mode is located on the Sup and SAMBA in slave mode is on the line module. Master can support 13 line cards and slave can support 48 ports on a single device. Supports broadcast suppression when SAMBA is in slave mode. Counters gather statics.


13. Which of the following ASICs is responsible for handling ATM and FDDI MAC layers?

A. SAMBA
B. EARL
C. SAINT
D. SAGE

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Answer: D

SAGE-Synergy Advanced Gate Array Engine. This is similar to the SAINT without Ethernet MAC. It is used with the ATM and FDDI MAC layers, has 1 to 2 MB of additional buffering.


14. Which two statements are true regarding configuring FDDI port parameters? (Choose all that apply)

A. The menu for FDDI configuration will be available only if you have the FDDI module installed
B. To display the FDDI port configuration press F on the main menu
C. The ring status is show at the right of the menu indicates if the module has attached to the ring
D. The status has three possible states operation, non-operational, pending

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Answer: A & D

The menu for FDDI configuration will be available only if you have the FDDI module installed. The FDDI port status has three possible states:

  1. operational
  2. non-operational
  3. pending


15. Which of the following list are examples of "in band" management? (Choose all that apply)

A. console
B. telnet
C. asynchronous modem connection
D. snmp

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Answer: B & D

In band management means management "through" the network, while out of band management is using methods not through the network (eg: Console and an Asynchronous Modem Connection).


16. Which two statements are true regarding In-band management? (Choose all that apply)

A. Can be used over a dialup modem
B. Requires a serial cable
C. The Out-of-band management features can be used to provide telnet access to a catalyst switch CLI
D. In-band management can be used to establish snmp management sessions on an SNMP management platform

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Answer: C & D

In-band management means management "through" the network, while Out-of-band management is using methods not through the network (eg: Console and an Asynchronous Modem Connection).


17. Which statement(s) are true regarding the embedded RMON agent? (Choose all that apply)

A. The embedded RMON mib supports 4 groups: the statistics, history, alarm, and event group
B. RMON lets you monitor traffic from across a vlan to a single port for analysis
C. RMON solutions which include vlan director, traffic director, CiscoView delivers a management system for growing switch networks
D. The RMON is contained in the EARL ASIC

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Answer: A & C

The RMON mib supports 4 groups which are statistics, history, alarms and event group. SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) lets you monitor traffic from across a VLAN to a single port for analysis. Rmon solutions such as vlan director, traffic director, and CiscoView delivers a management system for a growing switched network, the RMON functionality is contained in the NMP (Network Management Processor).


18. Which of the following is the NMP processor responsible for? (Choose all that apply)

A. System Control
B. Spanning Tree Per VLAN
C. Local diagnostics of onboard RAM, SAINT, LTL and CBL
D. Network Management
E. Bus arbitration

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Answer: A, B & D

NMP-Network Management Processor. The NMP uses system software that governs the control of the hardware, its configuration, and diagnostics routines, including the loading of run time code to the line modules. The NMP performs the following: System Control, System Configuration, System Diagnostics, Spanning Tree Per VLAN, Network Management CLI.


19. Which of the following is the NMP processor responsible for? (Choose all that apply)

A. System Control
B. System Configuration
C. Bus Arbitration
D. System Diagnostics
E. Network Management (CLI, SNMP)

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Answer: A, B, D & E

NMP-Network Management Processor. The NMP uses system software that governs the control of the hardware, its configuration, and diagnostics routines, including the loading of run time code to the line modules. The NMP performs the following: System Control, System Configuration, System Diagnostics, Spanning Tree Per VLAN, Network Management CLI.


20. Which of the following ASIC's performs the functionality of a learning bridge?

A. SAINT
B. SAGE
C. SAMBA
D. EARL
E. MCP

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Answer: D

EARL-Encoded Address Recognition Logic. This is similar in function to the learning bridges or content addressable memory (CAM) used on other systems. Listens and learns MAC addresses. Associates source port, VLAN ID, and MAC address. The EARL stores up to 128,000 addresses. Stores addresses for 300 seconds (default), can configure between 60 to 1200 seconds.


21. Which Cisco devices would you manage with SPAN? (Choose all that apply)

A. Cisco 2501
B. Cisco 2820
C. Cisco 3000
D. Cisco 7000

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Answer: B & C

The SwitchProbeTM (Switched Port Analyzer) gives superior network management and the ability to perform protocol analysis from a single location. The SwitchProbe (Switch Port Analyzer) provides the latest technology for monitoring switch-based networks and helps to reduce the cost of managing these networks. It is included with the Catalyst series switches.


22. Which of the following are features of CWSI? (Choose all that apply)

A. Automatic Switch configuration
B. Remote Monitoring (RMON) protocol analysis
C. Artificial intelligence monitoring software
D. Graphical display for configuring, modifying and managing VLANs
E. Dial in option for Cisco TAC

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Answer: B & D

Cisco Works for Switched Internetworks is a complete management package. Its list of features include: 1. Graphical display of the physical devices and links in your network 2. Remote Monitoring (RMON) and protocol analysis, as well as troubleshooting of protocol-related problems 3. Graphical display of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) switches, physical links, permanent and switched virtual circuits, as well as performance monitoring of ATM switches and links and traffic analysis of RMON-enabled ATM links 4. End-station and user ID information and tracking database, as well as configuration information from Media Access Control-Virtual LAN (MAC-VLAN) mapping 5. Graphical display for configuring, modifying, and managing VLANs 6. Graphical representation of individual devices useable in configuring and monitoring chassis, port, and interface information CiscoWorks for Switched Internetworks has been replaced by the CiscoWorks 2000 software.


23. How does a Cisco CSE determine how your troubleshooting call is dealt with?

A. By the smartnet contract information.
B. By the type of problem and the priority level.
C. By the order in which the call was received.
D. Based upon the hardware's warranty.

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Answer: B

The smartnet information and warranty information is taken prior to being placed in the call queue to be dealt with by a Cisco CSE.


24. What three things does the CCO bug toolkit include?

A. Bug Watcher
B. Bug Navigator
C. Bug Alert
D. Bug Checker
E. All Answers are Correct

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Answer: A, B & C

A CCO designed utility for reporting and finding bugs in IOS software and hardware.


25. What three tools does the CCO management toolkit include?

A. Case Open
B. Case Query
C. Case Update
D. Bug Watcher
E. All Answers are Correct

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Answer: A, B & C

The management toolkit is designed to deal with active cases, opening a case or updating a case.


26. To see Mineseq and Yourseen type on a router what do you type?

A. Debug Serial Interface
B. Debug Frame-LMI
C. Debug Frame-Relay LMI
D. show interface

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Answer: A

Debug Serial Interface is an important command to see information about frame-relay updates and whether both sides of the connection are communicating.


27. What is proper procedure to help during VLAN Instability?

A. Reduce frequency of Spanning Tree Algorithms or processes
B. Create VTP server offline
C. Make Router the root bridge
D. Increase frequence of delay times on switch

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Answer: A


28. What command will not reset an interface completely?

A. Clear Interface command
B. Clear counters command
C. A malfunctioning CSU/DSU
D. Clear all command

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Answer: B

The clear interface command will reset that interface entirely. And since this was a command question the malfunctioning CSU/DSU would not apply.


29. What are the steps Cisco recommends you follow when troubleshooting?

A. Define the problem/Gather the Facts
B. Consider Possibilities/Create Action Plan
C. Iterate Process/Document Facts
D. Implement Action Plan/Observe Results
E. All Answers are Correct

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Answer: E


30. What is VLAN ID 1 recommended by Cisco to be used for? (Choose all that apply)

A. Management
B. User Traffic
C. SNMP
D. All Answers are Correct

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Answer: A & C

It is only a recommendation, however using VLAN ID 1for Management and SNMP can help keep the network standardized.


31. Is users can connect to some TCP sessions on a remote network and not others what is most likely the problem?

A. No default gateway specified
B. Router misconfiguration
C. Addressing and mask problems
D. Access-list misconfiguration

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Answer: D

The key word is "TCP". If a user can make some of the connections and not others it is most likely the the router is running an access-list the denys access to some TCP ports. Remember there is a implicit "deny any" at the end of all access-lists. Whatever is not approved will be denied unless otherwise stated.


32. What logging creates least overhead?

A. To internal buffer
B. To a syslog server
C. To a remote console
D. To a tftp server

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Answer: A

Internal buffer logging creates the least overhead. To a syslog server is the next option that creates the least overhead.


33. Which of the following Cisco devices offer ISL? (Choose all that apply)

A. 7000 Series Routers
B. 4000 Series Routers
C. 5000 Series Switches
D. 2000 Series Switches

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Answer: A, B & C


34. What happens when you set up at VTP server offline and then connect it to the network?

A. VTP domain information will remain in a loop
B. You run the risk of inconsistency when the server comes online and networks can get wrong info and networks can disappear
C. The spantree protocol will receive errors on trunk information
D. No Answer is Correct

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Answer: B

It is never a good idea to configure VTP servers offline. The dynamic nature of the VTP domain creates the need to configure VTP Servers online.


35. What part of the switch deals with how ports access backplane and destination of packets?

A. ASIC's
B. CBL
C. EARL
D. NMP

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Answer: A


36. How do you tell in a debug isdn q931 who is originator of call?

A. The high order bit of the call reference number is set to 0
B. Connect pd = 0X87
C. The connection ACK packet
D. The show dialer command

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Answer: A

This bit will be set to 1 for the receiver of the call.


37. A router that can do routing and switching is it sometimes called?

A. Net Flow Switch
B. Router on a stick
C. Route Switch Processor
D. No Answer is correct

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Answer: C


38. If VLAN is slow or unreliable what should you troubleshoot? (Choose all that apply)

A. Check for a bad adapter
B. Check for an improperly attached cable
C. Check for half duplex setting
D. No Answer is Correct

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Answer: A, B & C


39. What show commands shows ip to Lan (MAC) mappings?

A. show ip routes
B. show ip packet
C. show ip arp
D. No Answer is Correct

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Answer: C

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is the protocol used to map static MAC address to their dynamic IP counterparts.


40. Who can answer open forum questions?

A. People who may or may not work for Cisco
B. Only Cisco CCIE's
C. Any registered user
D. No Answer is correct

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Answer: A


41. Place in proper order the TCP connection process:
  1. TCP ACK
  2. TCP SYN
  3. TCP SYN ACK
  4. TCP ARP
A. 4, 2, 1, 3
B. 2, 1, 4
C. 2, 3, 1
D. 1, 2, 4, 3

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Answer: C


42. What are the two main components that ISL adds to an ethernet frame?

A. VLAN ID
B. Port of Origin
C. Its own CRC
D. All Answers are Correct

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Answer: A & B

VLAN ID and Port of Origin are what ISL adds to an ethernet frame. All of this increases the packet size by 30 bytes.


43. What type of switching is available on a 7500 with a VIP installed?

A. Silicon
B. Fast
C. Cache
D. Distributed

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Answer: D


44. What will not show during a show cdp? (Choose all that apply)

A. A WAN switch
B. A router VIA an ATM interface
C. A 7500 Series router without a VIP module
D. All Answers are Correct

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Answer: A & B

Since ATM does not handle broadcasts and neither do WAN switches, they will not accept or report CDP information. CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol).