Certified Information Systems Security Professional


1. As part of emergency response awareness, all employees should have minimal training in all but which of the following?

A. First aid
B. Use of a fire extinguisher
C. Evacuation routes
D. Management of toxic gases

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Answer: D

Management of toxic gases is an activity that requires specialized training and equipment. This is not a normal awareness activity for employees.

All employees should have this issue addressed in their general emergency response awareness training.


2. Which of the following is not an important element or aspect of business continuity planning (BCP) or disaster recovery planning (DRP)?

A. Minimum operational IT system requirements.
B. Obtaining replacement hardware.
C. Restoring critical operations.
D. Maintaining a reliable backup solution.

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Answer: A


3. When selecting an insurance policy to reduce the effects of a disaster on an organization, what is the most important criteria to consider?

A. Overall cost.
B. Familiarity of the insurance company with your specific field of operation.
C. Total value of the organization's assets.
D. Evaluating asset value with various risks.

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Answer: D

This is the best criteria for selecting an insurance policy.


4. What is a disaster recovery plan primarily concerned with protecting against?

A. Financial losses
B. Asset losses
C. Equipment losses
D. Market share losses

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Answer: A

A DRP is primarily concerned with protecting against financial losses.

Asset loss is only part of the overall financial loss potential due to a crisis.

Equipment loss is only part of the overall financial loss potential due to a crisis.

Market share loss is only part of the overall financial loss potential due to a crisis.


5. If an organization does not have a disaster recovery plan and an earthquake destroys the primary processing facility, who is held liable?

A. Insurance company
B. IT staff
C. Senior management
D. Risk analysis team

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Answer: C

Senior management is held liable for the lack of due care and due diligence in forming a disaster recovery plan.


6. Which backup or protection mechanisms can be used to quickly restore a database at the primary location due to a virus corruption from the data stored at the secondary location?

A. Sending an employee to the second site to physically move the duplicate system back to the primary site.
B. Creating a drive image from the secondary site and then using the drive image to restore the primary site.
C. Offsite tape storage.
D. Electronic vaulting.

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Answer: D

The use of electronic vaulting is the fastest mechanism to restore a damaged system at the primary site from the backup stored at the secondary site. Electronic vaulting consists of the online storage of backups, which can be quickly accessed and restored.

Retrieving a system from the secondary site is not as efficient as electronic vaulting.

Retrieving a drive image from the secondary site is not as efficient as electronic vaulting.

Retrieving tapes from an offsite storage facility is not as efficient as electronic vaulting.


7. What must occur to minimize losses due to a disaster?

A. A hot site must be available for immediate transfer of production operations.
B. Minimizing the disaster recovery time period.
C. Ensuring all personnel are thoroughly trained in contingency activities.
D. Ensuring noncritical functions are restored.

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Answer: B

Minimizing the disaster recovery time period will directly reduce the losses associated with the disaster.

The presence of a hot site will not directly reduce losses due to a disaster; in general, a hot site is prohibitively expensive.

Personnel training will make disaster recovery more efficient, but only shortening the time period for recovery results in true loss prevention.

This is a normal and required step of disaster recovery, but it does not directly affect the loss associated with recovery.


8. When storing backup tapes at an offsite facility for an organization that controls highly confidential military assets, which of the following is the most important aspect to consider?

A. The format of the backup tapes.
B. The number of backup tapes stored offsite.
C. The useful life of the stored data.
D. Whether the same route is traveled at the same time each day between the facility and the offsite storage location.

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Answer: D

The travel route is the most important aspect to consider from this list. If the data is highly classified, very high security standards need to be maintained. This would include varying the route and the time at which backup tapes are transferred offsite to prevent timed attacks against the transfer vehicles.

The format or type of backup tapes is inconsequential to the security for highly confidential military assets.

The number of backup tapes is inconsequential to the security for highly confidential military assets.

The useful life of the stored data is inconsequential to the security for highly confidential military assets.


9. What is the best way to test a disaster recovery plan?

A. During a crisis.
B. Unannounced.
C. Using simulations.
D. Immediately after a disaster occurs.

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Answer: B

The best way to test a DRP is like an unannounced fire drill. A few key managers should be aware of the test, but all aspects of the DRP should be implemented to ensure they operate as designed.

Waiting to test a DRP during an actual crisis is not a test. It is a plan for failure.

Simulations are not tests. A DRP requires implementation testing.

Waiting to test a DRP during an actual crisis is not a test. It is a plan for failure.


10. When a hardware failure occurs, which designation determines the length of time the recovery process will take?

A. Cost of the repair.
B. Availability of replacement parts.
C. Mean time to repair.
D. Thoroughness of the business continuity plan.

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Answer: C

The mean time to repair determines how long it will take to repair a system and thus directly relates to the recovery time period.

The cost of the repair does not affect the recovery time period.

The availability of replacement parts is an element of the MTTR factor. MTTR directly relates to the length of time recovery requires.

BCP should focus on limiting recovery time, but it is not the primary factor in determining the length of an actual recovery time period.


11. A traffic accident results in a delivery van crashing into your server cage located in the corner of your building. All systems within the cage are damaged beyond repair. What would have been the best course of action to prepare for such an emergency?

A. Arranging for a cold site backup facility.
B. Adequately training employees in security awareness.
C. Contracting with a neighboring company in a mutual aid agreement.
D. Implementing a daily offsite electronic vault backup system.

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Answer: D

The best preparatory action for such a disaster is an offsite backup solution.


12. When performing contingency planning for a SOHO LAN, which of the following should be considered?

A. Remote access connectivity for telecommuters.
B. Backup solutions.
C. Hot site alternative processing facility.
D. Rolling mobile backup sites with self-contained A/C and fully installed servers.

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Answer: B

A SOHO (small office, home office) LAN should have backup solutions as part of its contingency plan.

A SOHO (small office, home office) LAN should not involve concern for remote access connectivity for telecommuters because a LAN is not a WAN and thus does not require remote access connections and a SOHO environment doesn't have telecommuters.

Plans for a SOHO (small office, home office) LAN should not consider a hot site alternative processing facility due to the extreme expense. Plus, such as site is typically unnecessary or excessive.

Plans for a SOHO (small office, home office) LAN should not consider rolling mobile backup sites because they are extremely expensive and are excessive for a SOHO LAN environment.


13. Which of the following network devices offers the least redundancy or fault tolerance?

A. Switch
B. UPS
C. FDDI
D. Hub

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Answer: D

Switches often offer redundant connection paths to destinations.

A UPS offers redundancy and fault tolerance for the supply of power.

FDDI is a fault-tolerant and redundant form of Token-Ring.

A hub is not redundant or fault tolerant.


14. Which of the following is not an element or aspect of the ISC2 code of ethics?

A. CISSP certification holders are required by law to uphold the ISC2 code of ethics.
B. CISSP certification holders should adhere to the highest ethical standards of behavior.
C. A condition of CISSP certification is adherence to the ISC2 code of ethics.
D. Protect society, the commonwealth, and the infrastructure.

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Answer: A

This is not an element or aspect of the ISC2 code of ethics; the code is not enforceable by law.

This is in the preamble of the ISC2 code of ethics.

This is one of the cannons of the ISC2 code of ethics.


15. Which of the following is not directly specified in the cannons of the ISC2 code of ethics?

A. Act honorably, honestly, justly, responsibly, and legally.
B. Provide diligent and competent service to principals.
C. Don't write malicious code, such as viruses.
D. Advance and protect the profession.

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Answer: C

This is not addressed in the cannons of the ISC2 code of ethics.

This is addressed in the cannons of the ISC2 code of ethics.


16. Which of the following is not defined as an unethical and unacceptable activity by RFC 1087?

A. Soliciting for nonprofit organization donations.
B. Wasting resources (people, capacity, computer) through such actions.
C. Destroying the integrity of computer-based information.
D. Compromising the privacy of users.

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Answer: A

This is not listed or defined as an unethical and unacceptable activity by RFC 1087.

This is listed or defined as an unethical and unacceptable activity by RFC 1087.


17. What is the theft of small amounts of information from many sources to compile or infer data about something private or classified known as?

A. Masquerading
B. The Salami technique
C. Data diddling
D. Espionage

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Answer: B

The theft of small amounts of information from many sources to compile or infer data about something private or classified is known as the Salami technique.

Masquerading is pretending to be something you are not.

Data diddling is the act of unauthorized modification of data.

Espionage is the use of spies to discover private or secret information.


18. What is the crime of impersonation or spoofing also known as?

A. Spamming
B. Data diddling
C. Masquerading
D. Social engineering

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Answer: C

Masquerading is another name for the crime of impersonation or spoofing.

Spamming is the act of sending an account or a system a large amount of unrequested messages, such as email or newsgroup postings.

Data diddling is the act of unauthorized modification of data.

Social engineering is using human nature against people to discover private or confidential information or to get them to perform unauthorized activities.


19. What is TEMPEST concerned with?

A. Emanation eavesdropping.
B. Distributed denial-of-service attacks.
C. Password theft.
D. Dumpster diving.

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Answer: A


20. What is a superzap?

A. A short-duration high-voltage surge of electricity.
B. A tool used to discover the source of an Internet attack even when spoofed packets are used.
C. A tool used to bypass system security to modify or disclose data.
D. A firewall scanning tool used to detect open and active ports.

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Answer: C

Superzap is a tool used to bypass system security to modify or disclose data.


21. Which of the following is not malicious code?

A. Email spam
B. A virus
C. A Trojan horse
D. A worm

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Answer: A

Email spam is unwanted, can cause a DoS attack, and can be the carrier agent of malicious code, but it is not itself considered a form of malicious code.


22. What is the computer crime that attempts to alter the financial status of a nation, disrupt its power grid, or misrepresent the capabilities of an enemy known as?

A. Employing the Salami technique.
B. Data diddling.
C. Information warfare.
D. Espionage.

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Answer: C

The computer crime that attempts to alter the financial status of a nation, disrupt its power grid, or misrepresent the capabilities of an enemy is known as information warfare.

The theft of small amounts of information from many sources to compile or infer data about something private or classified is known as the Salami technique.

Data diddling is the act of unauthorized modification of data.

Espionage is the use of spies to discover private or secret information.


23. Which of the following is not true?

A. The investigation of a computer crime can usually be accomplished by the same forensic specialists used for any other type of crime scene.
B. Evidence can be difficult to gather.
C. Locations of the crimes can be separated by large geographic distances even though they were perpetrated through a computer at a single location.
D. Electronic evidence can be destroyed easily, such as booting a system, running a program, or reading a file.

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Answer: A

This is incorrect. The investigation of a computer crime usually requires a specialist or an expert to gather evidence and process a crime scene.


24. What did the 1991 U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines establish?

A. Maximum sentences for the punishment of computer crimes.
B. Multijurisdiction accumulation of sentencing.
C. Punishment guidelines for breaking federal laws.
D. Rules for a jury to follow when debating the guilt or innocence of a suspect.

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Answer: C

The 1991 U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines established punishment guidelines for breaking federal laws.


25. The 1991 U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines establish a link between the degree/severity of punishment and ______.

A. the extent of due care.
B. size of asset loss.
C. financial cost to investors.
D. amount of liability insurance.

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Answer: A

The 1991 U.S. Federal Sentencing Guidelines establish a link between the degree/severity of punishment and the extent of due care.


26. Which of the following is not a way that a company can show that due care is properly implemented and practiced?

A. Performing security awareness training.
B. Performing penetration testing against the organization.
C. Deploying a homogenous network.
D. Running updated antivirus software.

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Answer: C

This is not an aspect of showing that due care is properly implemented and practiced. Homogeneity of systems on a network does not offer any special security benefits

This is an aspect of showing that due care is properly implemented and practiced.


27. What is the requirement that senior management must perform its duties with the same care that any normal, sensible person would under similar circumstances known as?

A. The prudent man rule.
B. The risk avoidance axiom.
C. The liability avoidance method.
D. Common sense.

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Answer: a

The requirement that senior management must perform its duties with the same care that any normal, sensible person would under similar circumstances is known as the prudent man rule.


28. Which of the following is not required to prove negligence in court?

A. Legally recognized obligation.
B. Failure to conform to a required standard.
C. Proximate causation resulting in damage or injury.
D. Violation of the prudent man rule.

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Answer: D

This element is not a requirement to prove negligence in court. This is used to prove liability.

This is an element required to prove negligence in court.


29. Which type of laws is the legislative branch responsible for creating?

A. Statutory law.
B. Common law.
C. Civil law.
D. Criminal law.

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Answer: A

Statutory law is a form of common law that is created by the legislative branch.

Common law is created by the judicial branch.

Civil law is a form of common law that is created by the judicial branch.

Criminal law is a form of common law that is created by the judicial branch.


30. Which type of law is concerned with the protection of the public and is able to assign imprisonment as a punishment?

A. Civil law.
B. Intellectual property law.
C. Criminal law.
D. Regulatory law.

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Answer: C

Criminal law is concerned with the protection of the public and offers imprisonment as a punishment.

Civil law is concerned with the wrongs inflicted against individuals or organizations but does not offer imprisonment as a punishment.

Intellectual property law is concerned with protecting original creations.

Regulatory law is concerned with the performance and conduct of organizations.


31. Which of the following statements is true?

A. European privacy laws are more restrictive than those of the U.S.
B. U.S. privacy laws are more restrictive than those of Europe.
C. European and U.S. privacy laws are about the same.
D. Europe has far fewer privacy laws that the U.S.

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Answer: A


32. Temping someone into committing a crime through coercion is known as what?

A. Enticement
B. A sting operation
C. Entrapment
D. Penetration testing

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Answer: C

Temping someone into committing a crime through coercion is known as entrapment.


33. Which of the following is not a component in the chain of evidence?

A. The method used to collect, obtain, or gather the evidence.
B. Location of evidence when it was collected.
C. Identification of individuals who possessed the evidence from the time of collection to the present.
D. The time the evidence was collected.

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Answer: A

The method used to collect the evidence is not part of the chain of evidence, but it can be an important issue in court.

This is a component in the chain of evidence.


34. Which of the following is not an element of the evidence life cycle?

A. Identification
B. Transportation
C. Destruction
D. Return to owner

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Answer: C

Destruction is not an element in the evidence life cycle. Evidence is never destroyed

This is an element in the evidence life cycle.


35. When identifying evidence collected at the scene of a computer crime, all but which of the following are valid methods for identifying evidence?

A. Writing a file containing identification information to the storage media.
B. Marking printouts with a permanent marker.
C. Placing components in labeled bags.
D. Making a list of serial numbers, makes, and models of components.

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Answer: A

This is not a valid method of identifying evidence because it modifies it.

This is a valid method to identify evidence.


36. What is evidence obtained from a secondary source rather than firsthand knowledge or experience known as?

A. Secondary evidence.
B. Circumstantial evidence.
C. Hearsay evidence.
D. Conclusive evidence.

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Answer: C

Hearsay evidence is evidence obtained from a secondary source rather than firsthand knowledge or experience

Secondary evidence is a copy of evidence or an oral description of its contents.

Circumstantial evidence is evidence gained through inference from other evidence or facts.

Conclusive evidence is incontrovertible.


37. What is the goal of an interrogation?

A. To gather enough evidence to consider the subject a suspect.
B. Enter Answer and Explanation. To gather enough evidence to consider the individual a witness.
C. To discern the who, what, when, where, why, and how of a crime.
D. To clear the suspect of all suspicion.

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Answer: A

The goal of an interrogation is to gather enough evidence to consider the subject a suspect.


38. Which of the following grants customers the ability to prohibit banks and financial institutions from sharing their personal information with nonaffiliated third parties?

A. U.S. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act.
B. U.S. Privacy Act 1974.
C. Gramm Leach Bliley Act of 1999.
D. U.S. National Information Infrastructure Protection Act 1996.

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Answer: C

The Gramm Leach Bliley Act of 1999 grants customers the ability to prohibit banks and financial institutions from sharing their personal information with nonaffiliated third parties.

The U.S. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act defines three new federal computer crimes.

The U.S. Privacy Act 1974 protects information about individuals within government databases.

The U.S. National Information Infrastructure Protection Act 1996 was an expansion of the U.S. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act to encourage the protection of confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data and systems.


39. Which of the following can receive encrypted products exported from America?

A. Any member of the European Union.
B. Only to England.
C. Any noncommunist country in the world.
D. All countries but Iraq, China, and Vietnam.

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Answer: A


40. Which of the following occurrences does not demonstrate foresight and planning on the part of a programmer when a software product encounters a security error?

A. Blue screen.
B. Switching into a nonprivileged state upon failure.
C. Locking out all high-level privileges.
D. Rebooting into any available state.

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Answer: D

Rebooting into any available state could result in booting into a privileged state, which is not the proper outcome when software encounters a security error.


41. What is a collection of related items of the same type?

A. File
B. Record
C. Database
D. Base relation

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Answer: A

A file is a collection of related items or records of the same type.

A record is a collection of related items.

A database is a cross-referenced collection of files.

A base relation is a table stored in a database.


42. Which of the following is required in every row of a table to maintain uniqueness?

A. Cell
B. File
C. Primary key
D. Schema

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Answer: C

A primary key is required in every row of a table to maintain uniqueness.


43. What holds the data that defines or describes the database?

A. Schema
B. Primary key
C. Data dictionary
D. Base relation

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Answer: A

A schema holds the data that defines or describes the database.

A primary key is a column that makes each row of a table unique.

A data dictionary is the centralized storehouse of the data elements and their relationships used by developers.

A base relation is a table stored in a database.


44. Which model of database is useful for mapping or creating many-to-many relationships?

A. Relational model.
B. Hierarchical model.
C. Distributed data model.
D. Reflective model.

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Answer: C

A distributed data model uses many-to-many relationships.

A relational model uses one-to-one relationships.

A hierarchical model uses one-to-many relationships.

There is no such type as a reflective model.


45. What is concurrency?

A. A mechanism used to ensure that database information is always correct.
B. A mechanism to ensure that structural and semantic rules are not violated.
C. A mechanism that ensures that no record contains references to a primary key of a nonexistent record.
D. A mechanism that terminates the current transaction and cancels all changes made to the database.

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Answer: A

Concurrency is a mechanism used to ensure that database information is always correct.

The semantic integrity mechanism ensures that structural and semantic rules are not violated.

The referential integrity mechanism ensures that no record contains references to a primary key of a nonexistent record.

A rollback statement is a mechanism that terminates the current transaction and cancels all changes made to the database.


46. What is polyinstantiation?

A. A mechanism that prevents the creation of entities within a database at a lower sensitivity level when that entity already exists at a higher sensitivity level.
B. A mechanism that allows a database table to contain two primary keys.
C. A mechanism that allows a duplicate primary key to be created at a lower sensitivity level when the same key already exists at a higher sensitivity level.
D. A mechanism for entering the same information into multiple databases simultaneously.

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Answer: C

Polyinstantiation is a mechanism that allows a duplicate primary key to be created at a lower sensitivity level when the same key already exists at a higher sensitivity level. This prevents inference.

A database table can have only a single primary key. This is not polyinstantiation.


47. Which of the following is not true when performing testing during product development?

A. Testing should use real or live data.
B. Testing should ensure that only valid value ranges are accepted.
C. Testing should verify that incorrect input types are rejected.
D. Testing should verify all bounds and conditions of input.

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Answer: A

Testing should never use real or live data.

Testing should ensure that only valid value ranges are accepted.

Testing should verify that incorrect input types are rejected.

Testing should verify all bounds and conditions of input.


48. Which procedure of configuration management is responsible for recording the processing of changes?

A. Configuration identification.
B. Configuration control.
C. Configuration status accounting.
D. Configuration audit.

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Answer: C

Configuration identification is the procedure of identifying and documenting the functional and physical characteristics of all configuration items.

Configuration control is the procedure that controls changes to the configuration items.

Configuration status accounting is the procedure that records the processing of changes.

Configuration audit is the procedure that controls the quality of the configuration management process.


49. Which inference engine step is used when a fuzzy output must be converted into a quantitative number?

A. Transposition
B. Polyinstantiation
C. Defuzzification
D. Composition

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Answer: C

Defuzzification is the inference engine step used when a fuzzy output must be converted into a quantitative number.

Transposition is not a valid inference engine step.

Polyinstantiation is not a valid inference engine step.

Composition occurs when all the output variables assigned to fuzzy subsets are combined to create a single output variable.


50. Which of the following is the collection of correlations between data or data about data?

A. Data mart
B. Metadata
C. Data dictionary
D. Data warehouse

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Answer: B

Metadata is the collection of correlations between data or data about data.

A data mart is a storage facility for metadata that offers a high level of protection.

A data dictionary is the centralized storehouse of the data elements and their relationships used by developers.

A data warehouse is a repository of information from several heterogeneous databases.


51. What are Java and ActiveX examples of?

A. Code that can be run on any platform.
B. Interpreted programming languages.
C. Programming languages that operate within a sandbox.
D. Mobile code.

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Answer: D

ActiveX and Java are examples of mobile code.

Only Java can be run on any platform. ActiveX is limited to Microsoft operating systems.

Java can be either compiled or interpreted, whereas ActiveX is always compiled.

Only Java operates within a sandbox.


52. Which of the following is not a countermeasure against malicious code?

A. Screening applets at the firewall.
B. Requiring strong passwords.
C. Requiring signed applets from trusted servers.
D. Training users for safe Internet usage.

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Answer: B

Requiring strong passwords is not a countermeasure against malicious code.


53. Which type of virus attaches itself to a program so it is activated whenever the software is executed?

A. Boot virus.
B. Macro virus.
C. File virus.
D. Companion virus.

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Answer: C

A file virus attaches itself to a program so it is activated whenever the software is executed.

A boot virus infects the boot sector on the primary hard drive.

A macro virus embeds itself in the template or macro set of a document.

A companion virus attaches itself to the OS or exploits the OS so the malicious code is executed before the intended code.


54. Which of the following is not considered a denial-of-service attack?

A. Consuming bandwidth from a victim.
B. Sending a limited amount of spam to a victim.
C. Blocking the ability to respond to legitimate traffic.
D. Consuming all computing resources.

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Answer: B

Although spam is unwanted and a large amount can result in a DoS attack, most spam is little more than annoying.


55. Which of the following is not a form of DoS attack?

A. Teardrop
B. SYN flood
C. Fraggle
D. Spoofing

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Answer: D

Although spoofing can be involved in some DoS attacks, spoofing in and of itself is not a DoS attack.


56. What is a serialization error?

A. A mistake made by a human when entering data into a database.
B. A boundary error.
C. A validation error.
D. A time-of-use or a time-of-check error.

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Answer: D


57. What is the biggest issue related to database security?

A. Logic bombs.
B. Human errors.
C. Inference attacks.
D. Validation errors.

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Answer: B

Human errors are the biggest issue related to database security. All other problems or issues are related to human errors, mistakes, or omissions.


58. What is an unapproved method of gaining access to a system known as?

A. Polymorphism
B. Trojan horse
C. Covert channel
D. Backdoor

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Answer: D

An unapproved method of gaining access to a system is known as a backdoor.

Polymorphism is the capability of different objects to respond differently to the same message.

A Trojan horse is a program that seems to be benign but secretly harbors malicious code that executes in the background when the program is launched.

A covert channel is the use of a nonobvious and uncommon means of communication to transfer information.


59. At which point in a product's development cycle should information security (infosec) be introduced?

A. Evaluation and testing.
B. Inception.
C. Design specification.
D. Software development.

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Answer: B

Infosec should be introduced into a product's development cycle from inception.


60. What is operations security primarily concerned with?

A. Protecting assets from threats.
B. Establishing audit trails.
C. Classifying subjects.
D. Managing personnel security awareness.

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Answer: A

Operations security is primarily concerned with protecting assets from threats.


61. What is trusted recovery?

A. A storage system that ensures the security of backup sets.
B. An element in disaster recovery planning where the restoration of backups is assigned to a trusted team of security professionals.
C. A process that ensures a system's security is not violated when it encounters a failure requiring a restoration.
D. An automatic process that restores the most recent backup to a system when a security fault is encountered.

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Answer: C

Trusted recovery is a process that ensures a system's security is not violated when it encounters a failure requiring a restoration.


62. What is the goal of configuration change management?

A. To ensure that all changes to the system do not diminish security.
B. To control who performs changes to the security system.
C. To track all changes to the security system.
D. To automate the distribution of widespread security changes throughout a network.

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Answer: A

The primary goal of configuration change management is to ensure that all changes to the system do not diminish security.


63. What makes it possible to easily audit and inspect the work tasks of an employee?

A. Separation of duties.
B. Exit interviews.
C. Mandatory vacations.
D. Background checks.

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Answer: C

Mandatory vacations allow for job auditing to ensure compliance with security policy and laws.


64. Which of the following is considered the lowest level of privilege?

A. Read-only
B. Read-write
C. Change access
D. Need to know

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Answer: A


65. Which of the following occurs when an intruder enters through a secured doorway by tagging along with an authorized user?

A. Social engineering.
B. Spoofing.
C. Piggybacking.
D. Eavesdropping.

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Answer: C

When an intruder enters through a secured doorway by tagging along with an authorized user, this is known as piggybacking.

Social engineering is the use of human nature against someone to get him to reveal information or perform an unauthorized activity.

Spoofing is impersonating something or someone else.


66. What is the most important aspect of security controls?

A. They need to be transparent to the system.
B. They must be simple.
C. They should be obvious to the user.
D. They can be circumvented by a superzap tool.

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Answer: A

Security controls need to be transparent to the system.

Security controls can be simple or complex; their capability to perform as expected is more important than their complexity.

Some security controls should be obvious to the user, but most should be unseen by the user.


67. Which of the following is not an auditing technique used to protect your IT environment?

A. Intrusion detection system.
B. Port scanning.
C. Dumpster diving.
D. Packet sniffing.

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Answer: C

Dumpster diving is rarely if ever used as a means to improve security of an organization; most often it is used as a data gathering mission for an attack.

IDS is a form of scanning used to improve the security of an organization.

Port scanning is a form of scanning used to improve the security of an organization.


68. Before it can be performed against you by a malicious attacker, what should you use against your IT infrastructure first?

A. Penetration testing.
B. Social engineering.
C. Dumpster diving.
D. War dialing.

>> !
Answer: A

You should perform penetration testing against your own IT infrastructure before an attacker. If you discover a fault, you can fix it. If an attacker discovers a fault, she can exploit it.

Social engineering can be used to test a security infrastructure by your own testing team; however, in most cases social engineering is dealt with on a training and awareness level rather than a technical or logistical attack level.

Dumpster diving is rarely used as a method to test a security infrastructure by your own testing team. However, secure disposal of sensitive information should be addressed in the security policy to avoid this vulnerability.

War dialing can be used in a penetration test, so this is not the best answer.


69. Which of the following is not a typical activity that causes a violation report to be created?

A. Repetitive mistakes that exceed the clipping level.
B. Users who attempt to exceed their access or privileges.
C. Several users performing normal work tasks that consume significant system resources without exceeding a clipping level.
D. Patterns of intrusion attempts.

>> !
Answer: C


70. Which of the following is not considered a threat to operational security?

A. Responding to hostile customers via email.
B. Conducting private business on the company's IT infrastructure.
C. Distributing sexually charged material to co-workers.

>> !
Answer: A

Unfortunately, hostile customers are a fact of doing business.

Conducting private business on the company's IT infrastructure is a waste of company resources and therefore a threat to operational security.

Committing sexual or racial harassment is an inappropriate activity that is considered a threat to operational security.

Revealing the context of sensitive documents to users outside the realm of need-to-know.


71. Countermeasures against traffic or trend analysis include all but which of the following?

A. Message padding.
B. Noise transmission.
C. Encrypting transmitted messages.
D. Analyzing covert channel usage.

>> !
Answer: C

The encryption of message traffic will not alter the traffic patterns themselves, which is the focus of traffic or trend analysis.


72. Trusted recovery is concerned with all but which of the following conditions?

A. Hot-swapping of a failed RAID member drive.
B. System reboot.
C. Emergency system restart.
D. Cold system boot.

>> !
Answer: A

Trusted recovery is not concerned with the hot-swapping of a failed RAID member drive.

System reboot is a concern of trusted recovery.

Emergency system restart is a concern of trusted recovery.

Cold system boot is a concern of trusted recovery.


73. What is an attack that reroutes packets by altering network addresses in the routing table or DNS system known as?

A. Masquerading
B. Spoofing
C. Hijacking
D. Superzapping

>> !
Answer: C

Hijacking is an attack that reroutes packets by altering network addresses in the routing table or DNS system.

Masquerading is a form of spoofing in which a system impersonates someone or something else.

Spoofing is impersonating something or someone else.

Superzapping is the use of a tool that bypasses system security to disclose or alter data.


74. Which of the following is not an effective means to protect email transmitted over the Internet?

A. Plain-text messages using polyalphabetic substitution ciphers.
B. Using PGP.
C. Implementing PKI.
D. Performing message encryption at the Application layer.

>> !
Answer: A


75. What is system fingerprinting?

A. A tool used by security administrators to examine the state of security on their networks.
B. A process of testing the security mechanisms of a network.
C. A method of gathering information about a network to be used in an intrusion or attack attempt.
D. A biometric device that provides authentication for remote networks.

>> !
Answer: C

System fingerprinting is a method of gathering information about a network to be used in an intrusion or attack attempt.


76. What are TCP wrappers useful for?

A. Protecting against port scanning.
B. Securing Internet communications.
C. Blocking VPN eavesdropping.
D. Preventing spoofing.

>> !
Answer: A

TCP wrappers are tools used as protection against port scanning.


77. Which of the following cannot be used to block access at the perimeter of a network?

A. Firewall.
B. Router.
C. IDS.
D. Proxy server.

>> !
Answer: C

IDS detects network perimeter access, but it does not block access.

Firewalls can be used to block access at the perimeter of a network.

Routers can be used to block access at the perimeter of a network.

Proxy servers can be used to block access at the perimeter of a network.


78. What is the disclosure of confidential information to another employee by the action of that employee viewing your system's screen or keyboard known as?

A. Shoulder surfing.
B. Social engineering.
C. Espionage.
D. Enticement.

>> !
Answer: A

Shoulder surfing is the act of disclosing confidential information to another employee by the action of that employee viewing your system's screen or keyboard.

Social engineering is the use of human nature against someone to get him to reveal information or perform an unauthorized activity.

Espionage is the act of gathering proprietary data from one organization and disclosing it to another organization.

Enticement is providing the opportunity for an individual to perform a crime without coercion.


79. Which of the following is not a network sniffer?

A. Jack the ripper
B. trinux
C. SATAN
D. Snort

>> !
Answer: C

SATAN is a security vulnerability scanner, not a network sniffer.


80. Which of the following is the primary countermeasure to session hijacking?

A. IPSec AH
B. Proxy servers.
C. Strong passwords.
D. Intrusion detection system.

>> !
Answer: A

IPSec's Authentication Header mode is the primary countermeasure to session hijacking.

Proxy servers are not a countermeasure for session hijacking.

Strong passwords are not a countermeasure for session hijacking.

An IDS is not a countermeasure for session hijacking. An IDS can detect session hijack attacks, but it does not prevent them.


81. A RAID 5 array is an example of which type of security control?

A. Detective
B. Recovery
C. Administrative
D. Physical

>> !
Answer: B

RAID 5 is an example of a recovery control because RAID 5 offers fault-tolerance and can continue functioning with the loss of a single drive member.


82. Which of the following activities most strongly encourages users to comply with security policies?

A. Awareness training.
B. Separation of duties.
C. Principle of least privilege.
D. Activity monitoring.

>> !
Answer: D

Awareness training does contribute to security policy compliance, but it does not have the greatest effect.

Separation of duties does contribute to security policy compliance, but it does not have the greatest effect.

Principle of least privilege does contribute to security policy compliance, but it does not have the greatest effect.


83. Who is ultimately responsible for negligence in protecting the assets of an organization?

A. Senior management.
B. Security team.
C. IT department.
D. Data custodian.

>> !
Answer: A

Senior management is ultimately responsible for implementing prudent due care and is liable for negligence in protecting the assets of an organization.

The security team is responsible for implementing all aspects of the security policy but is not ultimately responsible for the failure of imposed security.

The IT department is responsible for supporting and maintaining the IT infrastructure but is not ultimately responsible for the failure of imposed security

A data custodian is responsible for implementing the security defined by the security policy but is not ultimately responsible for the failure of imposed security.


84. Which of the following is the best personnel arrangement for the design and management of security for an organization?

A. A single security professional from within the organization.
B. A team of security professionals from the organization.
C. A team of employees representing every department within the organization.
D. An outside consultant.

>> !
Answer: B

The best personnel arrangement for the design and management of security for an organization is a team of internal security professionals.

A representative from every department is not necessary or warranted for security design. A broad representation of all departments is useful in qualitative risk analysis, but not in overall security design and management.


85. Which aspect of access control is responsible for verifying that you are allowed to perform the activities or actions you request on a system?

A. Auditing
B. Authentication
C. Administration
D. Authorization

>> !
Answer: D

Authorization is the aspect of access control that is responsible for verifying that you are allowed to perform the activities or actions you request on a system.


86. Which of the following is a physical security control?

A. Logical access controls.
B. Security awareness training.
C. Identification.
D. Environmental controls.

>> !
Answer: D

Environmental controls are physical security controls.

Logical access controls are technical security controls.

Security awareness training is an administrative security control.

Identification is a technical security control.


87. Which of the following is a valid definition for confidentiality?

A. Unauthorized disclosure is prevented.
B. Unauthorized modification is prevented.
C. Resources are accessible at all times by authorized users.
D. Disasters can be recovered from quickly.

>> !
Answer: A

Confidentiality can be defined by "Unauthorized disclosure is prevented."

Integrity can be defined by "Unauthorized modification is prevented."

Availability can be defined by "Resources are accessible at all times by authorized users."

Availability can be defined by "Disasters can be recovered from quickly."


88. Which of the following is a security control that ensures availability?

A. Encrypting data.
B. Blocking DoS attacks.
C. Checking for valid input.
D. Training personnel.

>> !
Answer: B

Blocking DoS attacks ensures availability.

Encrypting data ensures confidentiality.

Checking for valid input ensures integrity.

Training personnel ensures confidentiality.


89. Which of the following is not a vulnerability?

A. Unrestricted dial-in modems.
B. Open ports.
C. Absence of a password policy.
D. Human error.

>> !
Answer: D

Human error is a threat, not a vulnerability.

Unrestricted dial-in modems are a vulnerability.

Open ports are a vulnerability.

Absence of a password policy is a vulnerability.


90. How can risk be reduced?

A. Removing the vulnerability or removing the threat agent.
B. Adjusting procedures.
C. Installing fake security cameras.
D. Logging system activity.

>> !
Answer: A

Removing the vulnerability or removing the threat agent reduces risk.

Adjusting procedures does not reduce risk.

Installing fake security cameras does not reduce risk.

Logging system activity does not reduce risk.


91. Which of the following is the best definition for countermeasures and safeguards?

A. They eliminate exposure through configuration changes.
B. They block intrusion attempts.
C. They block damage by malicious code.
D. They reduce the risk of a threat taking advantage of a vulnerability.

>> !
Answer: D

"They reduce the risk of a threat taking advantage of a vulnerability" is the best definition offered in this question for countermeasures and safeguards.

Countermeasures and safeguards can eliminate exposure through configuration changes, but they can perform many other functions as well. This definition is incomplete.

Countermeasures and safeguards can block intrusion attempts, but they can perform many other functions as well. This definition is incomplete.

Countermeasures and safeguards can block damage by malicious code, but they can perform many other functions as well. This definition is incomplete.


92. Who within an organization is responsible for establishing the foundations of security as well as ongoing support and direction?

A. Security support staff.
B. IT department.
C. Upper or senior management.
D. System administrators.

>> !
Answer: C

Upper or senior management is responsible for establishing the foundations of security as well as ongoing support and direction.


93. Which type of plan developed by the security team is typically stable for 5 years and defines the security mission, goals, and objectives of an organization?

A. Operational plan.
B. Tactical plan.
C. Procedural plan.
D. Strategic plan.

>> !
Answer: D

The strategic plan, developed by the security team, is typically stable for 5 years and defines the security mission, goals, and objectives of an organization.


94. Which type of plan developed by the security team is typically stable for 1 year and defines, schedules, and manages the tasks necessary to implement the security objectives the organization?

A. Strategic plan.
B. Tactical plan.
C. Operational plan.
D. Procedural plan.

>> !
Answer: B

The tactical plan is typically stable for 1 year and defines, schedules, and manages the tasks necessary to implement the security objectives the organization.


95. The security model employed by an organization depends on its primary needs. What are the primary needs of a private sector business?

A. Confidentialityand integrity.
B. Confidentiality and availability.
C. Integrity and availability.
D. Access control and risk avoidance.

>> !
Answer: C

The primary needs of a private sector business are integrity and availability.


96. What is the goal of risk management?

A. Reduce risk to an acceptable level.
B. Remove all risk.
C. Evaluate risks.
D. Implement countermeasures.

>> !
Answer: A

The goal of risk management is to reduce risk to an acceptable level.


97. Which of the following is true?

A. All risks can be eliminated.
B. All security configurations reduce risk.
C. Risk reduction requires an IDS.
D. No system can be 100% risk free.

>> !
Answer: D

No system can be 100% risk free.

Not all security configurations reduce risk.

Risk reduction can be performed without an IDS.


98. Which of the following is not a goal of risk analysis?

A. Expand security awareness training.
B. Identify all possible risks to an environment.
C. Quantify the impact or cost of potential threats.
D. Provide a cost/benefit analysis of countermeasures and safeguards.

>> !
Answer: A

Expanding security awareness training is not a goal of risk analysis.

Identifying all possible risks to an environment is a goal of risk analysis.

Quantifying the impact or cost of potential threats is a goal of risk analysis.

Providing a cost/benefit analysis of countermeasures and safeguards is a goal of risk analysis.


99. In risk analysis, senior management is responsible for all but which of the following?

A. Performing the cost/benefit analysis.
B. Defining the scope of the risk analysis process.
C. Appointing the risk assessment team.
D. Acting on the results of the analysis.

>> !
Answer: A

The risk assessment team, not senior management, is responsible for performing the cost/benefit analysis.

Senior management is responsible for defining the scope of the process, appointing the assessment team, and acting on the results.


100. Which aspect of an asset determines whether is should be protected and to what extent that protection should extend?

A. Accessibility
B. Data type
C. Value
D. Accuracy

>> !
Answer: C

The value of an asset determines its need for security.


101. Which of the following is not a reason, benefit, or requirement to perform asset valuation?

A. Reduces hosting costs.
B. Useful in countermeasure selection.
C Insurance coverage identification.
D. Prevents negligence of due care.

>> !
Answer: A

Asset valuation does not typically improve asset hosting costs.

Usefulness in countermeasure selection is a benefit of asset valuation.

Insurance coverage identification is a benefit of asset valuation.

Preventing negligence of due care is a benefit of asset valuation.


102. Which of the following statements is true?

A. A purely quantitative risk analysis can be performed by the risk assessment team.
B. A quantitative analysis requires the subjective input from users.
C. A purely quantitative risk analysis cannot be performed because qualitative aspects cannot be quantified.
D. Qualitative analysis requires specific dollar valuations of assets to be successful.

>> !
Answer: C

A purely quantitative risk analysis cannot be performed because qualitative aspects cannot be quantified.

Quantitative analysis assigns real numbers to aspects of the analysis; subjective input is not used.

Qualitative analysis uses subjective information to perform an evaluation.


103. What is the formula used to derive annualized loss expectancy?

A. Asset Value x Exposure Factor x Annualized Rate of Occurrence.
B. Asset Value x Annualized Rate of Occurrence.
C. Asset Value x Exposure Factor.
D. Exposure Factor x Annualized Rate of Occurrence.

>> !
Answer: A

Asset Value x Exposure Factor x Annualized Rate of Occurrence or Single Loss Expectancy x Annualized Rate of Occurrence is the formula for the annualized loss expectancy.


104. Which of the following is not a task that should be performed by the risk assessment/risk analysis team?

A. Perform a threat analysis.
B. Estimate the potential for each risk to be realized.
C. Implement an appropriate countermeasure.
D. Assign values to assets.

>> !
Answer: C<

Implementing an appropriate countermeasure is not a task of the risk assessment team. It provides only cost/analysis of countermeasures. Selecting an appropriate countermeasure based on the analysis and assigning the implementation procedure to the security management/administration team is the responsibility of management.

Performing a threat analysis is a task of the risk assessment team.

Estimating the potential for each risk to be realized is a task of the risk assessment team.

Assigning values to assets is a task of the risk assessment team.


105. Which qualitative analysis method is a group decision method that seeks a consensus while retaining the anonymity of the participants?

A. Delphi technique.
B. Brainstorming.
C. Storyboarding.
D. Surveys.

>> !
Answer: A

The Delphi technique is a group decision method that seeks a consensus while retaining the anonymity of the participants.


106. In the formula for calculating residual risk, what does the controls gap element represent?

A. Vulnerability.
B. Potential of risk realization.
C. Countermeasures and safeguards.
D. Cost of risk analysis.

>> !
Answer: C


107. What type of policy is not enforceable?

A. Informative
B. Advisory
C. Organizational
D. Regulatory

>> !
Answer: A

Informative policies cannot be enforced.

Advisory policies are enforced through the use of noncompliance consequences, such as employment termination.

Organizational policies can be enforced if they are of a regulatory or advisory nature.

Regulatory policies can be enforced.


108. Standards are used for what purpose in a formalized security structure?

A. To implement industry regulations.
B. To detail the overall scope and vision of security for an organization.
C. To establish uniformity across an organization.
D. To define the actual processes used to implement security.

>> !
Answer: C


109. Guidelines serve all but which of the following purposes within an organization's formalized security structure?

A. A step-by-step implementation manual.
B. To introduce methodologies for handling various security issues.
C. To provide recommended courses of action for security problems.
D. As operational guides for the IT staff.

>> !
Answer: A

Guidelines do not serve as step-by-step implementation manuals.

Guidelines are used to introduce methodologies for handling various security issues.

Guidelines do provide recommended courses of action for security problems.

Guidelines do serve as operational guides for the IT staff.


110. Who is held liable for an organization's failure to perform due care and due diligence?

A. End users.
B. IT staff.
C. Senior management.
D. Security team.

>> !
Answer: C


111. Which of the following commercial business data classification levels represents the most sensitive collection of assets?

A. Confidential
B. Private
C. Sensitive
D. Public

>> !
Answer: A


112. Who is responsible for protecting the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data?

A. Senior management.
B. Data Owner.
C. Data Custodian.
D. End User.

>> !
Answer: C


113. Where do the greatest number of threats to the assets of an organization come from?

A. Inside the organization.
B. Malicious code.
C. The Internet.
D. Hardware failures.

>> !
Answer: A

The greatest number of threats to the assets of an organization come from inside the organization (over 85%).


114. Job rotation as a security mechanism has shown itself effective against all but which of the following?

A. Fraud.
B. Data modification.
C. Collusion.
D. Misuse of information.

>> !
Answer: C


115. What is the most important aspect of the exit interview for terminated employees?

A. Reviewing nondisclosure agreements.
B. Updating the job description.
C. Returning personal property.
D. Escorted removal from the property.

>> !
Answer: A

The most important aspect of the exit interview is to review nondisclosure agreements.

The most important aspect of the exit interview is to review nondisclosure agreements.

Updating the job description is not a function or aspect of the exit interview.

Escorted removal is an activity for after the exit interview.


116. All but which of the following are characteristics of an effective security plan?

A. Achievable
B. Specific
C. Inexpensive
D. Clearly stated

>> !
Answer: B

Implementing cost-effective safeguards is an aspect of a security plan, but not all safeguards or security mechanisms are inexpensive. The cost is not a characteristic of an efficient security plan.


117. What are the three fundamental principles of security?

A. Confidentiality, integrity, availability.
B. Authentication, authorization, accountability.
C. Accessibility, integrity, secrecy.
D. Privacy, control, prevention.

>> !
Answer: A


118. Which of the following characterizes authorization?

A. An audit log.
B. A biometric.
C. A security label or classification.
D. A challenge response token.

>> !
Answer: C


119. What type of authentication factor is a fingerprint?

A. Type 1
B. Type 2
C. Type 3
D. Type 4

>> !
Answer: C

A fingerprint is an example of a Type 3 authentication factor-something you are.


120. What is a Type 1 authentication factor also known as?

A. Something you know.
B. Something you have.
C. Something you are.
D. Something you do.

>> !
Answer: A


121. What type of password offers the best security possible for password-based authentication?

A. One-time passwords.
B. Static passwords.
C. Dynamic passwords.
D. Passphrases.

>> !
Answer: A


122. What is the crossover error rate (CER) used for in regard to a biometric device?

A. Tuning the device for efficiency.
B. Comparing performance between similar devices.
C. Adjusting the sensitivity of the device.
D. Reducing the enrollment time.

>> !
Answer: B


123. Which type of token generates unique passwords at fixed time intervals that must be provided to the authenticating system with the appropriate PIN within a valid time window?

A. Asynchronous password token.
B. Challenge-response token.
C. Synchronous dynamic password token.
D. Static password token.

>> !
Answer: C

A synchronous dynamic password token generates unique passwords at fixed time intervals that must be provided to the authenticating system with the appropriate PIN within a valid time window.


124. Access criteria are used to add need-to-know and trust level to the access control mechanisms. Which of the following is not a form of access criteria?

A. Type of transaction.
B. Authentication factor used.
C. Logical location.
D. Assigned role.

>> !
Answer: B

The authentication factor used is not a form of access criteria.


125. Which of the following is the security principle or axiom that restricts a person's access to resources or data even if he has sufficient security clearance?

A. Principle of least privilege.
B. Accountability.
C. Clark-Wilson control.
D. Need-to-know.

>> !
Answer: D

Need-to-know is the security principle or axiom that restricts a person's access to resources or data even if he has sufficient security clearance.


126. Which of the following is not an example of a single sign-on technology?

A. Kerberos
B. TACACS
C. SESAME
D. KryptoKnight

>> !
Answer: B

TACACS is not a single sign-on technology; it is a centrally managed remote access authentication service.


127. What authentication technology was developed to address weaknesses in Kerberos?

A. RADIUS
B. TACACS
C. SESAME
D. KryptoKnight

>> !
Answer: C

SESAME was designed to address weaknesses in Kerberos.


128. Discretionary access control is most often implemented using which mechanism?

A. Access control lists (ACLs).
B. Biometrics.
C. Roles.
D. Subject classification.

>> !
Answer: A

Discretionary access control is most often implemented using ACLs.


129. Which access control method is best suited for an organization with a high rate of personnel turnover and change?

A. Access control lists.
B. Mandatory access controls.
C. Role-based access controls.
D. Discretionary access controls.

>> !
Answer: C


130. Which authentication mechanism supports two-factor authentication for remote access clients?

A. TACACS+
B. Kerberos
C. RADIUS
D. XTACACS

>> !
Answer: A

TACACS+ supports two-factor authentication for remote access clients.